Unit 1 - Practice Quiz

INT363

1 What is the primary definition of Cloud Computing according to NIST?

A. A model for enabling ubiquitous, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources
B. A hardware specification for mainframe computers
C. A proprietary software installed on a local machine
D. A method of storing data solely on hard drives

2 Which of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of Cloud Computing?

A. On-demand self-service
B. Resource pooling
C. Rapid elasticity
D. Fixed hardware dependency

3 In which service model does the vendor manage everything including the application, data, runtime, middleware, and OS?

A. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
B. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
C. SaaS (Software as a Service)
D. DaaS (Desktop as a Service)

4 Which of the following is a primary example of PaaS?

A. Google App Engine
B. Amazon EC2
C. Salesforce CRM
D. Dropbox

5 What is the main benefit of the 'Pay-as-you-go' model in cloud computing?

A. It increases capital expenditure (CapEx)
B. It converts capital expenditure (CapEx) into operational expenditure (OpEx)
C. It requires upfront hardware purchase
D. It eliminates the need for internet connection

6 Which deployment model is available to the general public and is owned by an organization selling cloud services?

A. Private Cloud
B. Public Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Community Cloud

7 A cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization is known as:

A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Community Cloud
D. Open Cloud

8 What defines a Hybrid Cloud?

A. A cloud that only uses open-source software
B. A composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public)
C. A cloud used by the government only
D. A cloud that stores data on optical discs

9 What is 'Multi-tenancy' in cloud computing?

A. Using multiple cloud providers simultaneously
B. A single instance of software serving multiple customers (tenants)
C. One customer having multiple accounts
D. Hosting data in multiple countries

10 What does SOA stand for?

A. Service Oriented Architecture
B. System Open Architecture
C. Storage Oriented Allocation
D. Simple Object Access

11 Which principle describes the ability of a system to handle growing amounts of work by adding resources to the system?

A. Redundancy
B. Scalability
C. Latency
D. Interoperability

12 In the context of SOA, what is 'Loose Coupling'?

A. Services are physically connected via cables
B. Services operate independently and changes in one do not heavily impact others
C. Services must be written in the same programming language
D. Services share the exact same database tables directly

13 Which of the following is a key guiding principle regarding resource utilization in the cloud?

A. Resource Isolation
B. Resource Pooling
C. Resource Fragmentation
D. Resource Reservation only

14 What is OpenStack?

A. A proprietary cloud OS by Microsoft
B. An open-source platform for creating private and public clouds
C. A database management system
D. A programming language for cloud apps

15 Which OpenStack component is responsible for Compute services (provisioning virtual machines)?

A. Swift
B. Cinder
C. Nova
D. Horizon

16 In AWS, what does EC2 stand for?

A. Elastic Cloud Compute
B. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. Electronic Cloud Control
D. Enterprise Cloud Connect

17 Which AWS service is primarily used for Object Storage?

A. EC2
B. RDS
C. S3
D. Lambda

18 Which of the following is an application of Cloud Computing?

A. Disaster Recovery and Backup
B. Big Data Analytics
C. File Storage and Sharing
D. All of the above

19 What is the primary security concern in a Public Cloud environment?

A. Lack of internet access
B. Physical theft of servers by the user
C. Data privacy and multi-tenancy risks
D. High cost of hardware

20 Which OpenStack component is responsible for Networking?

A. Neutron
B. Keystone
C. Glance
D. Swift

21 What is the role of a Hypervisor in cloud computing?

A. To encrypt data
B. To create and run virtual machines
C. To manage billing
D. To design web interfaces

22 Which guiding principle refers to the ability to automatically provision and release resources as needed?

A. Rapid Elasticity
B. Broad Network Access
C. Measured Service
D. Resource Pooling

23 In the context of AWS, what is an Availability Zone (AZ)?

A. A separate geographic region
B. One or more discrete data centers with redundant power and networking within a Region
C. A specific server rack
D. A backup tape drive

24 Which deployment model is best suited for organizations with strict regulatory compliance and security requirements?

A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Community Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud

25 What is 'Cloud Bursting'?

A. A system crash in the cloud
B. An application running in a private cloud bursting into a public cloud during spikes in demand
C. Destroying data in the cloud
D. Merging two cloud companies

26 Which OpenStack service provides Identity and Authentication?

A. Keystone
B. Horizon
C. Nova
D. Cinder

27 In IaaS, who is responsible for patching the Guest OS?

A. The Cloud Provider
B. The Cloud Consumer
C. The Internet Service Provider
D. The Government

28 Which AWS service is a managed Relational Database Service?

A. DynamoDB
B. RDS
C. Redshift
D. ElastiCache

29 What is the dashboard component of OpenStack called?

A. Dashboard X
B. Panel
C. Horizon
D. ViewPoint

30 Which characteristic ensures that cloud systems automatically optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability?

A. Measured Service
B. Broad Network Access
C. Elasticity
D. Virtualization

31 A Community Cloud is best defined as:

A. A cloud for social media only
B. Infrastructure shared by several organizations with common concerns (e.g., security, compliance)
C. A free public cloud
D. A cloud for educational institutes only

32 In SOA, how do services typically communicate?

A. Direct memory access
B. Simple messages (e.g., via XML/JSON over HTTP)
C. Shared global variables
D. Hardcoded function calls

33 What is the main role of OpenStack Glance?

A. Block Storage
B. Image Service
C. Identity Management
D. Networking

34 Which of the following is a benefit of using a Public Cloud implementation?

A. Total control over hardware
B. No ongoing subscription costs
C. Reduced Time to Market and high scalability
D. Data physically located on-premise

35 Which AWS feature enables you to launch resources in a logically isolated virtual network?

A. AWS VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS Route53
D. AWS VPN

36 OpenStack Swift is equivalent to which AWS service?

A. EC2
B. EBS
C. S3
D. VPC

37 When designing a Private Cloud, which factor is the user's responsibility unlike in a Public Cloud?

A. Hardware procurement and maintenance
B. Application logic only
C. User access management only
D. Data entry

38 Which service model would a software developer typically use to deploy code without worrying about OS maintenance?

A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. On-Premise

39 OpenStack Cinder provides what type of storage?

A. Object Storage
B. Block Storage
C. Ephemeral Storage
D. File Storage

40 Which AWS service handles User Access and Encryption Keys management?

A. AWS IAM
B. AWS EC2
C. AWS Lambda
D. AWS CloudWatch

41 What is 'Service Reusability' in SOA?

A. Services are deleted after one use
B. Logic is divided into services with the intention of using them in multiple applications
C. Services copy code from other services
D. Services restart automatically

42 Which of the following describes 'Broad Network Access'?

A. Accessing cloud services only via LAN
B. Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms by thin or thick client platforms
C. Using a dedicated fiber line only
D. Access restricted to one device

43 Which is a disadvantage of a Private Cloud?

A. Low security
B. High initial cost and maintenance
C. Lack of control
D. Data is shared with the public

44 What is the difference between Scaling Up (Vertical) and Scaling Out (Horizontal)?

A. Up adds more machines; Out adds more power to a machine
B. Up adds more power (RAM/CPU) to an existing machine; Out adds more machines to the pool
C. They are the same
D. Up is for databases; Out is for storage

45 Which application of cloud computing allows for testing software in mirrored environments without buying hardware?

A. Test and Development
B. Big Data
C. Social Networking
D. E-commerce

46 In the 'Shared Responsibility Model' of Public Cloud (like AWS), who is responsible for 'Security OF the Cloud'?

A. The Customer
B. The Cloud Provider
C. The Government
D. Third-party auditors

47 Which component constitutes the 'control node' in an OpenStack architecture?

A. The node running the Guest VMs
B. The node running management services like API servers, scheduler, and database
C. The storage disks
D. The external router

48 Utility Computing is a precursor to Cloud Computing that emphasizes:

A. Free software
B. Offering computing resources as a metered service (like water or electricity)
C. Private networking
D. Visual Basic programming

49 What is the primary function of a Load Balancer in a cloud environment?

A. To store backup data
B. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
C. To encrypt passwords
D. To manage user identities

50 Which type of Hypervisor runs directly on the host's hardware?

A. Type 1 (Bare Metal)
B. Type 2 (Hosted)
C. Type 3 (Hybrid)
D. Type 4 (Virtual)