Unit 1 - Practice Quiz

INT363 50 Questions
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1 What is the primary definition of Cloud Computing according to NIST?

A. A method of storing data solely on hard drives
B. A model for enabling ubiquitous, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources
C. A proprietary software installed on a local machine
D. A hardware specification for mainframe computers

2 Which of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of Cloud Computing?

A. On-demand self-service
B. Rapid elasticity
C. Resource pooling
D. Fixed hardware dependency

3 In which service model does the vendor manage everything including the application, data, runtime, middleware, and OS?

A. DaaS (Desktop as a Service)
B. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
C. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
D. SaaS (Software as a Service)

4 Which of the following is a primary example of PaaS?

A. Dropbox
B. Amazon EC2
C. Google App Engine
D. Salesforce CRM

5 What is the main benefit of the 'Pay-as-you-go' model in cloud computing?

A. It requires upfront hardware purchase
B. It converts capital expenditure (CapEx) into operational expenditure (OpEx)
C. It eliminates the need for internet connection
D. It increases capital expenditure (CapEx)

6 Which deployment model is available to the general public and is owned by an organization selling cloud services?

A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Community Cloud

7 A cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization is known as:

A. Community Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Open Cloud

8 What defines a Hybrid Cloud?

A. A cloud that only uses open-source software
B. A cloud used by the government only
C. A cloud that stores data on optical discs
D. A composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public)

9 What is 'Multi-tenancy' in cloud computing?

A. One customer having multiple accounts
B. Using multiple cloud providers simultaneously
C. Hosting data in multiple countries
D. A single instance of software serving multiple customers (tenants)

10 What does SOA stand for?

A. Storage Oriented Allocation
B. System Open Architecture
C. Service Oriented Architecture
D. Simple Object Access

11 Which principle describes the ability of a system to handle growing amounts of work by adding resources to the system?

A. Interoperability
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Latency

12 In the context of SOA, what is 'Loose Coupling'?

A. Services operate independently and changes in one do not heavily impact others
B. Services are physically connected via cables
C. Services must be written in the same programming language
D. Services share the exact same database tables directly

13 Which of the following is a key guiding principle regarding resource utilization in the cloud?

A. Resource Fragmentation
B. Resource Pooling
C. Resource Isolation
D. Resource Reservation only

14 What is OpenStack?

A. A programming language for cloud apps
B. A database management system
C. A proprietary cloud OS by Microsoft
D. An open-source platform for creating private and public clouds

15 Which OpenStack component is responsible for Compute services (provisioning virtual machines)?

A. Nova
B. Horizon
C. Swift
D. Cinder

16 In AWS, what does EC2 stand for?

A. Enterprise Cloud Connect
B. Elastic Cloud Compute
C. Electronic Cloud Control
D. Elastic Compute Cloud

17 Which AWS service is primarily used for Object Storage?

A. RDS
B. Lambda
C. EC2
D. S3

18 Which of the following is an application of Cloud Computing?

A. Big Data Analytics
B. File Storage and Sharing
C. All of the above
D. Disaster Recovery and Backup

19 What is the primary security concern in a Public Cloud environment?

A. Physical theft of servers by the user
B. Lack of internet access
C. Data privacy and multi-tenancy risks
D. High cost of hardware

20 Which OpenStack component is responsible for Networking?

A. Swift
B. Neutron
C. Keystone
D. Glance

21 What is the role of a Hypervisor in cloud computing?

A. To design web interfaces
B. To encrypt data
C. To create and run virtual machines
D. To manage billing

22 Which guiding principle refers to the ability to automatically provision and release resources as needed?

A. Resource Pooling
B. Broad Network Access
C. Measured Service
D. Rapid Elasticity

23 In the context of AWS, what is an Availability Zone (AZ)?

A. A specific server rack
B. One or more discrete data centers with redundant power and networking within a Region
C. A backup tape drive
D. A separate geographic region

24 Which deployment model is best suited for organizations with strict regulatory compliance and security requirements?

A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Community Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud

25 What is 'Cloud Bursting'?

A. A system crash in the cloud
B. Destroying data in the cloud
C. An application running in a private cloud bursting into a public cloud during spikes in demand
D. Merging two cloud companies

26 Which OpenStack service provides Identity and Authentication?

A. Horizon
B. Keystone
C. Cinder
D. Nova

27 In IaaS, who is responsible for patching the Guest OS?

A. The Government
B. The Cloud Provider
C. The Internet Service Provider
D. The Cloud Consumer

28 Which AWS service is a managed Relational Database Service?

A. ElastiCache
B. RDS
C. DynamoDB
D. Redshift

29 What is the dashboard component of OpenStack called?

A. Dashboard X
B. Panel
C. Horizon
D. ViewPoint

30 Which characteristic ensures that cloud systems automatically optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability?

A. Measured Service
B. Elasticity
C. Broad Network Access
D. Virtualization

31 A Community Cloud is best defined as:

A. A cloud for social media only
B. A cloud for educational institutes only
C. A free public cloud
D. Infrastructure shared by several organizations with common concerns (e.g., security, compliance)

32 In SOA, how do services typically communicate?

A. Hardcoded function calls
B. Shared global variables
C. Simple messages (e.g., via XML/JSON over HTTP)
D. Direct memory access

33 What is the main role of OpenStack Glance?

A. Identity Management
B. Block Storage
C. Image Service
D. Networking

34 Which of the following is a benefit of using a Public Cloud implementation?

A. Data physically located on-premise
B. Reduced Time to Market and high scalability
C. Total control over hardware
D. No ongoing subscription costs

35 Which AWS feature enables you to launch resources in a logically isolated virtual network?

A. AWS Route53
B. AWS VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
C. AWS Direct Connect
D. AWS VPN

36 OpenStack Swift is equivalent to which AWS service?

A. EC2
B. EBS
C. VPC
D. S3

37 When designing a Private Cloud, which factor is the user's responsibility unlike in a Public Cloud?

A. Application logic only
B. Data entry
C. User access management only
D. Hardware procurement and maintenance

38 Which service model would a software developer typically use to deploy code without worrying about OS maintenance?

A. IaaS
B. On-Premise
C. SaaS
D. PaaS

39 OpenStack Cinder provides what type of storage?

A. Block Storage
B. Object Storage
C. Ephemeral Storage
D. File Storage

40 Which AWS service handles User Access and Encryption Keys management?

A. AWS Lambda
B. AWS CloudWatch
C. AWS IAM
D. AWS EC2

41 What is 'Service Reusability' in SOA?

A. Services are deleted after one use
B. Services copy code from other services
C. Logic is divided into services with the intention of using them in multiple applications
D. Services restart automatically

42 Which of the following describes 'Broad Network Access'?

A. Access restricted to one device
B. Accessing cloud services only via LAN
C. Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms by thin or thick client platforms
D. Using a dedicated fiber line only

43 Which is a disadvantage of a Private Cloud?

A. Data is shared with the public
B. Lack of control
C. Low security
D. High initial cost and maintenance

44 What is the difference between Scaling Up (Vertical) and Scaling Out (Horizontal)?

A. Up adds more power (RAM/CPU) to an existing machine; Out adds more machines to the pool
B. Up is for databases; Out is for storage
C. They are the same
D. Up adds more machines; Out adds more power to a machine

45 Which application of cloud computing allows for testing software in mirrored environments without buying hardware?

A. Test and Development
B. E-commerce
C. Big Data
D. Social Networking

46 In the 'Shared Responsibility Model' of Public Cloud (like AWS), who is responsible for 'Security OF the Cloud'?

A. Third-party auditors
B. The Government
C. The Cloud Provider
D. The Customer

47 Which component constitutes the 'control node' in an OpenStack architecture?

A. The node running management services like API servers, scheduler, and database
B. The node running the Guest VMs
C. The external router
D. The storage disks

48 Utility Computing is a precursor to Cloud Computing that emphasizes:

A. Visual Basic programming
B. Offering computing resources as a metered service (like water or electricity)
C. Private networking
D. Free software

49 What is the primary function of a Load Balancer in a cloud environment?

A. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
B. To store backup data
C. To encrypt passwords
D. To manage user identities

50 Which type of Hypervisor runs directly on the host's hardware?

A. Type 3 (Hybrid)
B. Type 1 (Bare Metal)
C. Type 2 (Hosted)
D. Type 4 (Virtual)