Unit 1 - Practice Quiz

INT363 50 Questions
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1 What is the primary definition of Cloud Computing according to NIST?

A. A proprietary software installed on a local machine
B. A method of storing data solely on hard drives
C. A model for enabling ubiquitous, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources
D. A hardware specification for mainframe computers

2 Which of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of Cloud Computing?

A. Resource pooling
B. Fixed hardware dependency
C. On-demand self-service
D. Rapid elasticity

3 In which service model does the vendor manage everything including the application, data, runtime, middleware, and OS?

A. SaaS (Software as a Service)
B. DaaS (Desktop as a Service)
C. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
D. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

4 Which of the following is a primary example of PaaS?

A. Dropbox
B. Amazon EC2
C. Salesforce CRM
D. Google App Engine

5 What is the main benefit of the 'Pay-as-you-go' model in cloud computing?

A. It requires upfront hardware purchase
B. It converts capital expenditure (CapEx) into operational expenditure (OpEx)
C. It eliminates the need for internet connection
D. It increases capital expenditure (CapEx)

6 Which deployment model is available to the general public and is owned by an organization selling cloud services?

A. Private Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Community Cloud

7 A cloud infrastructure operated solely for a single organization is known as:

A. Community Cloud
B. Public Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud

8 What defines a Hybrid Cloud?

A. A cloud that stores data on optical discs
B. A composition of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures (private, community, or public)
C. A cloud that only uses open-source software
D. A cloud used by the government only

9 What is 'Multi-tenancy' in cloud computing?

A. A single instance of software serving multiple customers (tenants)
B. Hosting data in multiple countries
C. One customer having multiple accounts
D. Using multiple cloud providers simultaneously

10 What does SOA stand for?

A. System Open Architecture
B. Service Oriented Architecture
C. Simple Object Access
D. Storage Oriented Allocation

11 Which principle describes the ability of a system to handle growing amounts of work by adding resources to the system?

A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Latency
D. Interoperability

12 In the context of SOA, what is 'Loose Coupling'?

A. Services must be written in the same programming language
B. Services share the exact same database tables directly
C. Services are physically connected via cables
D. Services operate independently and changes in one do not heavily impact others

13 Which of the following is a key guiding principle regarding resource utilization in the cloud?

A. Resource Fragmentation
B. Resource Reservation only
C. Resource Isolation
D. Resource Pooling

14 What is OpenStack?

A. A database management system
B. An open-source platform for creating private and public clouds
C. A proprietary cloud OS by Microsoft
D. A programming language for cloud apps

15 Which OpenStack component is responsible for Compute services (provisioning virtual machines)?

A. Swift
B. Horizon
C. Nova
D. Cinder

16 In AWS, what does EC2 stand for?

A. Electronic Cloud Control
B. Enterprise Cloud Connect
C. Elastic Compute Cloud
D. Elastic Cloud Compute

17 Which AWS service is primarily used for Object Storage?

A. Lambda
B. RDS
C. EC2
D. S3

18 Which of the following is an application of Cloud Computing?

A. Disaster Recovery and Backup
B. Big Data Analytics
C. File Storage and Sharing
D. All of the above

19 What is the primary security concern in a Public Cloud environment?

A. High cost of hardware
B. Lack of internet access
C. Physical theft of servers by the user
D. Data privacy and multi-tenancy risks

20 Which OpenStack component is responsible for Networking?

A. Swift
B. Neutron
C. Keystone
D. Glance

21 What is the role of a Hypervisor in cloud computing?

A. To create and run virtual machines
B. To encrypt data
C. To design web interfaces
D. To manage billing

22 Which guiding principle refers to the ability to automatically provision and release resources as needed?

A. Measured Service
B. Broad Network Access
C. Rapid Elasticity
D. Resource Pooling

23 In the context of AWS, what is an Availability Zone (AZ)?

A. A specific server rack
B. One or more discrete data centers with redundant power and networking within a Region
C. A separate geographic region
D. A backup tape drive

24 Which deployment model is best suited for organizations with strict regulatory compliance and security requirements?

A. Community Cloud
B. Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud

25 What is 'Cloud Bursting'?

A. Destroying data in the cloud
B. Merging two cloud companies
C. An application running in a private cloud bursting into a public cloud during spikes in demand
D. A system crash in the cloud

26 Which OpenStack service provides Identity and Authentication?

A. Keystone
B. Cinder
C. Horizon
D. Nova

27 In IaaS, who is responsible for patching the Guest OS?

A. The Cloud Consumer
B. The Internet Service Provider
C. The Cloud Provider
D. The Government

28 Which AWS service is a managed Relational Database Service?

A. Redshift
B. RDS
C. DynamoDB
D. ElastiCache

29 What is the dashboard component of OpenStack called?

A. Dashboard X
B. Panel
C. Horizon
D. ViewPoint

30 Which characteristic ensures that cloud systems automatically optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability?

A. Virtualization
B. Elasticity
C. Measured Service
D. Broad Network Access

31 A Community Cloud is best defined as:

A. A free public cloud
B. A cloud for social media only
C. Infrastructure shared by several organizations with common concerns (e.g., security, compliance)
D. A cloud for educational institutes only

32 In SOA, how do services typically communicate?

A. Direct memory access
B. Shared global variables
C. Simple messages (e.g., via XML/JSON over HTTP)
D. Hardcoded function calls

33 What is the main role of OpenStack Glance?

A. Image Service
B. Networking
C. Block Storage
D. Identity Management

34 Which of the following is a benefit of using a Public Cloud implementation?

A. No ongoing subscription costs
B. Data physically located on-premise
C. Reduced Time to Market and high scalability
D. Total control over hardware

35 Which AWS feature enables you to launch resources in a logically isolated virtual network?

A. AWS Route53
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS VPN
D. AWS VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)

36 OpenStack Swift is equivalent to which AWS service?

A. EBS
B. S3
C. EC2
D. VPC

37 When designing a Private Cloud, which factor is the user's responsibility unlike in a Public Cloud?

A. User access management only
B. Application logic only
C. Data entry
D. Hardware procurement and maintenance

38 Which service model would a software developer typically use to deploy code without worrying about OS maintenance?

A. On-Premise
B. SaaS
C. IaaS
D. PaaS

39 OpenStack Cinder provides what type of storage?

A. File Storage
B. Ephemeral Storage
C. Block Storage
D. Object Storage

40 Which AWS service handles User Access and Encryption Keys management?

A. AWS EC2
B. AWS CloudWatch
C. AWS Lambda
D. AWS IAM

41 What is 'Service Reusability' in SOA?

A. Services are deleted after one use
B. Services restart automatically
C. Logic is divided into services with the intention of using them in multiple applications
D. Services copy code from other services

42 Which of the following describes 'Broad Network Access'?

A. Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms by thin or thick client platforms
B. Access restricted to one device
C. Accessing cloud services only via LAN
D. Using a dedicated fiber line only

43 Which is a disadvantage of a Private Cloud?

A. High initial cost and maintenance
B. Lack of control
C. Low security
D. Data is shared with the public

44 What is the difference between Scaling Up (Vertical) and Scaling Out (Horizontal)?

A. They are the same
B. Up adds more machines; Out adds more power to a machine
C. Up adds more power (RAM/CPU) to an existing machine; Out adds more machines to the pool
D. Up is for databases; Out is for storage

45 Which application of cloud computing allows for testing software in mirrored environments without buying hardware?

A. E-commerce
B. Big Data
C. Test and Development
D. Social Networking

46 In the 'Shared Responsibility Model' of Public Cloud (like AWS), who is responsible for 'Security OF the Cloud'?

A. The Cloud Provider
B. The Government
C. Third-party auditors
D. The Customer

47 Which component constitutes the 'control node' in an OpenStack architecture?

A. The storage disks
B. The node running management services like API servers, scheduler, and database
C. The node running the Guest VMs
D. The external router

48 Utility Computing is a precursor to Cloud Computing that emphasizes:

A. Private networking
B. Visual Basic programming
C. Offering computing resources as a metered service (like water or electricity)
D. Free software

49 What is the primary function of a Load Balancer in a cloud environment?

A. To manage user identities
B. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers
C. To encrypt passwords
D. To store backup data

50 Which type of Hypervisor runs directly on the host's hardware?

A. Type 1 (Bare Metal)
B. Type 3 (Hybrid)
C. Type 4 (Virtual)
D. Type 2 (Hosted)