Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

INT242 60 Questions
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1 What is the primary goal of an incident response plan?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Easy
A. To delete all logs to hide the incident from the public.
B. To minimize damage and restore normal operations as quickly as possible.
C. To punish the attackers who caused the incident.
D. To immediately purchase new security software.

2 Which phase of the incident response lifecycle involves taking steps to prevent the incident from spreading?

Incident Response Easy
A. Preparation
B. Post-Incident Activity
C. Containment
D. Detection & Analysis

3 What is the primary purpose of maintaining a 'chain of custody' in digital forensics?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. To encrypt the collected evidence.
B. To speed up the data analysis process.
C. To prove the integrity and handling of evidence.
D. To identify the attacker immediately.

4 Which of the following is a fundamental data source for security monitoring and incident investigation?

Data Sources Easy
A. Marketing brochures
B. Company financial reports
C. System and network log files
D. Employee satisfaction surveys

5 What does the acronym SIEM stand for in the context of cybersecurity?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. Security Incident and Emergency Management
B. System Information and Event Monitoring
C. Security Information and Event Management
D. System Incident and Emergency Malware

6 What is an 'Indicator of Compromise' (IoC)?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Easy
A. A piece of evidence on a network or system that indicates a security breach has occurred.
B. A software that prevents all cyber attacks.
C. A report on a company's financial losses due to an attack.
D. A contract that guarantees 100% security.

7 A user receives an email demanding payment to unlock their files, which have all become inaccessible. This is a classic indicator of what type of malware attack?

Malware Attack Indicators Easy
A. Virus
B. Adware
C. Spyware
D. Ransomware

8 A sudden and massive increase in network traffic to a web server, causing it to become slow or unavailable, is an indicator of which type of attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Easy
A. Denial of Service (DoS)
B. Man-in-the-Middle
C. SQL Injection
D. Phishing

9 Seeing text like ' OR 1=1; -- in a web application's log for a user input field is a strong indicator of what kind of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Easy
A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B. Denial of Service (DoS)
C. SQL Injection
D. Phishing

10 Which is the very first phase in a standard incident response plan?

Incident Response Easy
A. Eradication
B. Containment
C. Preparation
D. Detection

11 What is the primary function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. To monitor network or system activities for malicious activity and report it.
B. To block all incoming network traffic.
C. To automatically delete suspicious emails.
D. To encrypt all data on a hard drive.

12 In digital forensics, what is the process of creating a bit-for-bit copy of a piece of digital media called?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. Copying and Pasting
B. Archiving
C. Imaging
D. Summarizing

13 What type of information do firewall logs primarily provide to a security analyst?

Data Sources Easy
A. A list of all software installed on a server.
B. User login and logout times on a specific computer.
C. Information about network traffic that was allowed or denied.
D. Which websites a user visited using a specific browser.

14 If a user's computer suddenly has a new, unwanted browser toolbar and is constantly showing pop-up advertisements, it is likely infected with what?

Malware Attack Indicators Easy
A. Ransomware
B. A boot sector virus
C. Adware or Spyware
D. A rootkit

15 Finding an unfamiliar device plugged into a network port in an office is an example of what?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Easy
A. A potential physical and network security breach.
B. An employee charging their phone.
C. A routine software update.
D. A standard network upgrade.

16 What is the main purpose of security monitoring?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Easy
A. To track employee productivity.
B. To continuously watch systems and networks for signs of security threats.
C. To manage the company's marketing budget.
D. To install new software on all computers.

17 What happens during the 'Post-Incident Activity' or 'Lessons Learned' phase of incident response?

Incident Response Easy
A. The team erases all evidence of the incident.
B. The team identifies that an incident has occurred.
C. The team isolates the affected systems from the network.
D. The team analyzes the incident and their response to it to make improvements for the future.

18 Which of the following would be considered a network-based Indicator of Compromise (IoC)?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Easy
A. A user account being created at an unusual time.
B. Unusual outbound traffic to a known malicious IP address.
C. A new file with a strange name in the C:\Windows directory.
D. An antivirus program being disabled.

19 What does NetFlow data provide for security analysis?

Data Sources Easy
A. The full content of every network packet.
B. The passwords used for every user login.
C. Metadata about network conversations (who talked to whom, for how long).
D. A copy of every email sent and received.

20 A large number of failed login attempts from a single IP address for a single user account is an indicator of what type of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Easy
A. Brute-force attack
B. Phishing
C. Man-in-the-Middle
D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

21 An organization has detected an active data exfiltration event from a critical database server. According to the NIST incident response lifecycle, what is the most appropriate immediate action during the Containment, Eradication, & Recovery phase?

Incident Response Medium
A. Conduct a full forensic analysis to identify the attacker's TTPs.
B. Disconnect the server from the network to stop the exfiltration.
C. Wipe the server and restore from the most recent backup.
D. Notify regulatory bodies and affected customers of the data breach.

22 A forensic investigator is collecting evidence from a running server that is suspected of being compromised. According to the Order of Volatility, which of the following data types should be collected first?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. CPU registers and cache.
B. Archived logs and backup tapes.
C. Network traffic and ARP cache.
D. Data from the hard disk drive.

23 A Security Operations Center (SOC) analyst is writing a SIEM correlation rule to detect a potential brute-force attack. Which logic would be most effective for this purpose?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. Alert if a single user account has more than 10 failed login attempts followed by 1 successful login from the same IP address within 5 minutes.
B. Alert every time a 'login failed' event is generated for an administrator account.
C. Alert if any user successfully logs in from an IP address geolocated in a foreign country.
D. Alert when network traffic from a single source exceeds 1 GB/hour.

24 A network security analyst needs to investigate a report of slow network performance. They suspect a broadcast storm. Which data source would be most useful for reconstructing the exact sequence of packets and identifying the misconfigured device?

Data Sources Medium
A. Full Packet Capture (PCAP) data from a network tap.
B. Syslog messages from all network servers.
C. NetFlow records from a core router.
D. Firewall logs showing allowed and denied connections.

25 A system administrator notices that standard system utilities like ls and ps are producing unusual or incomplete results. Furthermore, files known to exist are not visible in directory listings, and network connections are not shown by netstat. These symptoms are classic indicators of what type of malware?

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. Spyware
B. Adware
C. Ransomware
D. Rootkit

26 While monitoring network traffic, an analyst observes a large volume of TCP SYN packets directed at a single web server from many different source IPs. The server is responding with SYN-ACK packets, but it is not receiving the final ACK, causing its connection table to fill up. What attack is most likely occurring?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. ARP Poisoning
B. SYN Flood (DDoS)
C. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
D. DNS Tunneling

27 An analyst reviews a web server's access log and finds the following entry: GET /items/view.php?id=123%20OR%201=1. What type of attack should the analyst investigate?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. Directory Traversal
B. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
C. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
D. SQL Injection (SQLi)

28 What is the primary distinction between an Indicator of Compromise (IoC) and an Indicator of Attack (IoA)?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Medium
A. IoCs are generated by firewalls, while IoAs are generated by antivirus software.
B. IoCs are post-breach evidence (what happened), while IoAs are real-time signs of an ongoing attack (what is happening).
C. IoCs are high-fidelity alerts, while IoAs are low-fidelity alerts that require correlation.
D. IoCs relate to network events, while IoAs relate to endpoint events.

29 Why is it standard practice for a digital forensics investigator to create a cryptographic hash (e.g., SHA-256) of an evidence drive both before and after creating a forensic image?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. To identify and remove any malware present on the original drive.
B. To encrypt the evidence drive for secure storage.
C. To prove that the imaging process did not alter the original evidence.
D. To compress the forensic image for more efficient storage.

30 During the 'Lessons Learned' meeting in the Post-Incident Activity phase, what is the primary goal for the incident response team?

Incident Response Medium
A. To brief the executive leadership team on the successful containment of the threat.
B. To assign blame for the security failures that led to the incident.
C. To calculate the total financial cost of the incident for insurance purposes.
D. To identify gaps in security controls and update the incident response plan.

31 An organization wants to proactively detect suspicious activities on its endpoints, such as a Microsoft Word process spawning a PowerShell command. Which security tool is specifically designed to provide this level of visibility and detection?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. Network Access Control (NAC)
B. Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)
C. Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
D. Web Application Firewall (WAF)

32 A security analyst correlates several events: 1) A user received a spear-phishing email. 2) A short time later, a PowerShell process was observed downloading a file. 3) The endpoint began communicating with a known command-and-control server. This sequence of events is best described as:

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Medium
A. A security policy violation.
B. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack.
C. A vulnerability scan.
D. An attack chain or kill chain.

33 An analyst notices that their workstation's ARP table intermittently shows the MAC address for the default gateway changing to the MAC address of another workstation on the same subnet. This is a strong indicator of what type of attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. MAC Flooding
B. IP Spoofing
C. DNS Hijacking
D. ARP Poisoning

34 Users are reporting that when they try to browse to legitimate websites, they are frequently redirected to malicious sites. A network analyst inspects DNS traffic and sees that DNS queries for google.com are being answered by an unauthorized internal server, not the configured external DNS server. This most likely indicates:

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. A worm propagating across the local network.
B. DNS cache poisoning on the endpoints or a compromised local DNS server.
C. A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack against the external DNS server.
D. A BGP hijacking attack affecting the entire internet.

35 A web application's error log is filled with messages indicating that a user is attempting to access files such as ../../../../etc/passwd. This activity is a clear indicator of which type of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. XML External Entity (XXE) Injection
B. Directory Traversal
C. Buffer Overflow
D. Insecure Deserialization

36 A SOC needs to monitor user authentication behavior across multiple different systems (Windows, Linux, VPN, web apps) to detect credential stuffing attacks. Which data source would be the most effective to centralize and analyze for this purpose?

Data Sources Medium
A. Web server access logs.
B. NetFlow data from network switches.
C. Endpoint process monitoring logs from an EDR tool.
D. Centralized authentication and security event logs.

37 A company is developing its incident response plan and wants to establish clear criteria for when an event should be escalated to a full-blown incident. Which of the following would be the best criteria to trigger an incident declaration?

Incident Response Medium
A. The detection of a port scan from an external IP address.
B. Any alert generated by the Intrusion Detection System (IDS).
C. When a single user reports they are unable to access a file share.
D. Evidence of unauthorized access to a system containing sensitive customer data.

38 What is the primary purpose of maintaining a strict 'Chain of Custody' for a piece of digital evidence?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. To document every person who handled the evidence, to ensure its integrity and admissibility in legal proceedings.
B. To create a timeline of the security incident for the management report.
C. To track the financial cost associated with the forensic investigation.
D. To provide a backup copy of the evidence in case the original is damaged.

39 What is a key advantage of a Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platform over a traditional Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. SOAR is the only tool capable of collecting logs from different sources.
B. SOAR provides long-term log storage and retention for compliance purposes.
C. SOAR can automate and coordinate response actions across multiple tools based on predefined playbooks.
D. SOAR focuses exclusively on network traffic analysis, while SIEM focuses on logs.

40 A large enterprise has established a dedicated Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT). What is the primary role of this team within the organization?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Medium
A. To develop new software applications for the company.
B. To perform daily system administration tasks and patch management.
C. To conduct routine compliance audits against standards like PCI DSS and HIPAA.
D. To be the central point of coordination and expertise for responding to cybersecurity incidents.

41 An incident response team is handling a sophisticated APT attack. During the 'Containment' phase (NIST SP 800-61), they discover the attacker has established persistence on a domain controller but is currently dormant. The 'Eradication' plan requires rebuilding the DC from a trusted source, which will cause a 4-hour outage for critical business services. Executive leadership is pushing to delay the rebuild to minimize business impact. What is the most defensible course of action for the IR lead?

Incident Response Hard
A. Proceed with immediate eradication despite the outage, citing the risk of the APT reactivating and causing greater damage.
B. Isolate the DC from the network segments containing critical data, but leave it online to maintain authentication services for less sensitive systems.
C. Negotiate a shorter outage window with leadership by presenting a risk analysis that quantifies the potential financial loss of APT reactivation versus the quantified loss from the outage.
D. Implement additional monitoring on the compromised DC and delay eradication until a scheduled maintenance window, accepting the risk.

42 During a forensic analysis of a Windows NTFS filesystem, an investigator examines the STANDARD_INFORMATION attribute for the same file has a file creation timestamp of 2023-10-26 14:45:00. What does this temporal anomaly most strongly indicate?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. An anti-forensics technique known as 'timestomping' was used to alter the FILE_NAME timestamps were left unchanged.
B. The file was created on a different system with an incorrect clock and then copied to the target system.
C. The system clock was adjusted between the file's creation and when its metadata was written.
D. This is a normal artifact of the NTFS journaling process and does not indicate malicious activity.

43 A SOC needs to detect an advanced data exfiltration technique where a malicious actor is using DNS tunneling to send small chunks of encrypted data within TXT record queries for a domain they control (e.g., <encoded_data>.malicious.com). Which data source would be the most effective for reliably detecting and analyzing this specific threat?

Data Sources Hard
A. NetFlow data showing high volumes of UDP port 53 traffic to the attacker's DNS server.
B. Zeek (formerly Bro) DNS logs or full packet captures that record the full content of DNS queries and responses.
C. Firewall logs showing a large number of allowed connections to the attacker's DNS server IP.
D. Web proxy logs, as they capture all HTTP/HTTPS traffic which may include DNS over HTTPS.

44 While analyzing a memory dump from a compromised server using Volatility, you identify a svchost.exe process whose parent process ID (PPID) does not correspond to the legitimate services.exe. Furthermore, this svchost.exe process has loaded wininet.dll and has an active network connection to a non-standard port on an external IP. This combination of indicators is most characteristic of what malware technique?

Malware Attack Indicators Hard
A. A ransomware variant encrypting files in a background service.
B. A bootkit that has modified the kernel to launch processes.
C. A worm spreading via the SMB protocol, which legitimately uses svchost.exe.
D. Process hollowing or process injection, where malware has injected its code into a legitimate svchost.exe instance.

45 An analyst observes the following alert: "A PowerShell process was launched with the command line arguments `-NoP -NonI -W Hidden -Exec Bypass -EncodedCommand [long base64 string]...". According to David J. Bianco's 'Pyramid of Pain', what level of indicator does this alert primarily represent?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Hard
A. IP Addresses
B. Tools / TTPs
C. Hash Values
D. Network/Host Artifacts

46 The security team for an e-commerce site notices that certain API search endpoints, which use a backend Elasticsearch cluster, experience catastrophic performance degradation when queries contain nested clauses and a high number of leading wildcard characters (e.g., *keyword*). Application performance monitoring shows CPU usage on the Elasticsearch nodes spiking to 100%, but no database errors are logged. This is a classic indicator of what type of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. Regular Expression Denial of Service (ReDoS)
B. Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
C. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) targeting the API
D. Time-based Blind SQL Injection

47 Network monitoring reveals a slow, steady stream of ICMP Echo Reply packets originating from a database server and sent to a single external IP address. No corresponding ICMP Echo Requests are observed entering the network destined for that server. The payload size of the replies is consistently non-standard (e.g., 128 bytes) and appears to be random data. What is the most plausible explanation for this traffic?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Hard
A. A stateful firewall is malfunctioning and dropping inbound ICMP requests while allowing outbound replies.
B. The server is misconfigured and is stuck in a ping loop with an external host.
C. Data is being exfiltrated covertly using ICMP as a C2 channel, with the payload of the Echo Replies containing the stolen data.
D. This is normal traffic from a network monitoring tool checking the server's uptime.

48 A Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platform is configured with a playbook that, upon receiving a 'Malware Detected' alert from an EDR, automatically isolates the host and submits the malware hash to a threat intelligence platform. However, the SOC is being overwhelmed by alerts for polymorphic malware, where every new infection has a unique hash, rendering the hash-submission step useless. What is the most effective enhancement to this SOAR playbook to provide more durable defense?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools
A. Modify the playbook to extract and submit the C2 domain or IP address from the EDR alert instead of the file hash.
B. Increase the severity score of the alert each time a new hash is detected to get more attention.
C. Integrate a sandbox to detonate the malware, but continue to only submit the hash of the original sample.
D. Add a step to automatically delete the detected file from all other workstations.

49 An investigator is performing live response on a Linux system suspected of having a kernel-level rootkit. Which of the following forensic procedures would be the MOST reliable for uncovering evidence of such a rootkit?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. Checking the contents of the /proc/modules and /sys/module directories for any unusually named kernel modules.
B. Acquiring a full memory dump of the live system and analyzing the System Call Table in memory against a known-good profile for that kernel version.
C. Running the chkrootkit and rkhunter tools directly on the suspect system.
D. Comparing the output of ls -al /bin on the suspect system with the output from a known-good system.

50 In the context of the SANS/PICERL incident response framework, what is a key strategic difference between the 'Containment' and 'Eradication' phases when dealing with a human-operated ransomware attack?

Incident Response Hard
A. Containment is about blocking C2 IP addresses, while Eradication is about patching the vulnerability that was exploited.
B. Containment focuses on identifying all compromised hosts, while Eradication focuses on restoring from backups.
C. Containment is performed by the Tier 1 SOC analysts, while Eradication is exclusively handled by the digital forensics team.
D. Containment involves short-term actions to stop the immediate bleeding (e.g., isolating network segments), while Eradication involves removing all attacker artifacts, which may include rebuilding entire systems.

51 A security analyst is hunting for 'living-off-the-land' lateral movement activity, specifically the use of Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) to execute commands on remote systems. To create a high-fidelity detection rule, which combination of data sources and correlated events would be most effective?

Data Sources Hard
A. Windows Security Event ID 4624 (Logon Success) with Logon Type 3 (Network) on the destination host.
B. Correlation of a source host's process execution log (e.g., Sysmon Event ID 1) showing wmiprvse.exe spawning a process, with a destination host's Windows Security Event ID 4624 (Logon Type 3) from the source host's IP within a short time window.
C. Firewall logs showing traffic on TCP port 135 (RPC) between workstations.
D. Windows System Event logs on the source host showing WMI service start/stop events.

52 A web application's login page suddenly begins responding with a generic HTTP 500 - Internal Server Error for any failed login attempt, whereas previously it gave specific 'Invalid Username' or 'Invalid Password' messages. Simultaneously, monitoring shows a spike in failed login attempts from a single IP address. This change in application behavior is a strong indicator of what?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. An attacker successfully modified the application's source code to hide their tracks.
B. A brute-force password guessing attack that is overloading the authentication service.
C. The web application firewall (WAF) is misconfigured and is now blocking legitimate error messages.
D. An attacker is exploiting a user enumeration vulnerability and the application has been patched mid-attack, resulting in the new generic error.

53 An EDR alert fires for rundll32.exe executing a command containing javascript:"..\mshtml,RunHTMLApplication ". The process also initiates a network connection to download a file with an .hta extension. This specific sequence is a well-known method for bypassing application controls and is a strong indicator of what type of fileless execution payload?

Malware Attack Indicators Hard
A. A Java Drive-By-Download exploit.
B. An HTML Application (HTA) payload delivered by an initial dropper.
C. A malicious macro embedded in a Word document.
D. A PowerShell Empire stager.

54 A security analyst correlates two pieces of information: 1) An EDR alert showing lsass.exe was accessed by powershell.exe on a server, and 2) A network alert for Kerberos TGS-REQ packets containing RC4-HMAC encrypted data originating from that same server. What specific credential theft technique, associated with the MITRE ATT&CK framework, do these combined indicators point to?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Hard
A. Pass-the-Hash (PtH)
B. Golden Ticket (T1558.001)
C. Kerberoasting (T1558.003)
D. DCSync (T1003.006)

55 A SIEM is configured with a rule to detect 5 failed logins followed by 1 successful login from the same IP for the same user within 1 minute. This rule is generating a high number of false positives from a sales department where users frequently mistype their passwords. Which of the following is the most effective tuning strategy to reduce false positives without significantly increasing the risk of missing a real brute-force attack?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Hard
A. Whitelist the IP range of the entire sales department.
B. Increase the threshold to 50 failed logins.
C. Decrease the time window from 1 minute to 10 seconds.
D. Modify the rule to only trigger if the successful login originates from a different geographic location or ASN than the failed logins.

56 A wireless intrusion detection system (WIDS) generates an alert for a 'deauthentication flood' attack targeting the corporate Wi-Fi network's main access point. Simultaneously, a new open Wi-Fi network with an SSID identical to the corporate one (e.g., 'CorpWifi') appears. What is the primary goal of this combined attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Hard
A. To identify weaknesses in the WPA2-PSK key by capturing the 4-way handshake from multiple devices.
B. To drain the battery life of connected mobile devices by forcing them to constantly re-authenticate.
C. To perform a denial-of-service attack to disrupt business operations.
D. To force legitimate users to disconnect from the corporate network and reconnect to the attacker's rogue AP for a man-in-the-middle attack.

57 Your company has just suffered a data breach where customer PII was exfiltrated by a known cybercrime group. Legal counsel has advised that you must preserve evidence for potential litigation and law enforcement investigation. However, the forensics team reports that the malware used by the attackers includes a logic bomb set to securely wipe the drives of all compromised servers in 24 hours. This presents a direct conflict between:

Incident Response Hard
A. The Identification and Eradication phases of incident response.
B. Evidence preservation (for forensics) and incident containment (preventing further damage).
C. The principles of 'Order of Volatility' and 'Chain of Custody'.
D. Business continuity and cybersecurity insurance requirements.

58 An examiner is analyzing a Windows memory dump and wants to find evidence of a fileless malware that was executed via reflective DLL injection. Which of the following Volatility plugin outputs would provide the most direct evidence of this specific technique?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. pslist showing a process with a suspicious name.
B. malfind identifying injected code in a process's memory that has no corresponding module on disk and has PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE memory protection.
C. netscan showing an established connection from a legitimate process like explorer.exe.
D. dlllist showing all loaded DLLs for each process.

59 A web application log shows a successful authenticated request from a user to the endpoint /api/v1/update_profile. The JSON body of the request contains the expected parameters: {"email": "user@example.com", "phone": "555-1234"}. However, a subsequent log entry from the same session shows another request to the same endpoint with the body: {"email": "user@example.com", "phone": "555-1234", "isAdmin": true}. The application accepted this request and the user was successfully elevated to an administrator. This indicates what specific type of application vulnerability?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. Mass Assignment Vulnerability
B. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
C. Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
D. Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR)

60 A security analyst is investigating an alert and finds the following command executed on a domain controller: ntdsutil.exe 'ac i ntds' 'ifm' 'create full C:\temp' q q. This command, when successfully executed by a privileged user, is a strong Indicator of Attack (IoA) for which specific adversarial objective?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Hard
A. Credential Access via offline dumping of the Active Directory database.
B. Lateral movement using WMI or PsExec.
C. Establishing persistence via a new service creation.
D. Disabling security tools and clearing event logs.