Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

INT242 60 Questions
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1 What is the primary goal of an incident response plan?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Easy
A. To minimize damage and restore normal operations as quickly as possible.
B. To delete all logs to hide the incident from the public.
C. To punish the attackers who caused the incident.
D. To immediately purchase new security software.

2 Which phase of the incident response lifecycle involves taking steps to prevent the incident from spreading?

Incident Response Easy
A. Preparation
B. Detection & Analysis
C. Post-Incident Activity
D. Containment

3 What is the primary purpose of maintaining a 'chain of custody' in digital forensics?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. To identify the attacker immediately.
B. To encrypt the collected evidence.
C. To speed up the data analysis process.
D. To prove the integrity and handling of evidence.

4 Which of the following is a fundamental data source for security monitoring and incident investigation?

Data Sources Easy
A. System and network log files
B. Company financial reports
C. Marketing brochures
D. Employee satisfaction surveys

5 What does the acronym SIEM stand for in the context of cybersecurity?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. System Incident and Emergency Malware
B. Security Incident and Emergency Management
C. Security Information and Event Management
D. System Information and Event Monitoring

6 What is an 'Indicator of Compromise' (IoC)?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Easy
A. A contract that guarantees 100% security.
B. A report on a company's financial losses due to an attack.
C. A piece of evidence on a network or system that indicates a security breach has occurred.
D. A software that prevents all cyber attacks.

7 A user receives an email demanding payment to unlock their files, which have all become inaccessible. This is a classic indicator of what type of malware attack?

Malware Attack Indicators Easy
A. Adware
B. Ransomware
C. Virus
D. Spyware

8 A sudden and massive increase in network traffic to a web server, causing it to become slow or unavailable, is an indicator of which type of attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Easy
A. Phishing
B. Man-in-the-Middle
C. SQL Injection
D. Denial of Service (DoS)

9 Seeing text like ' OR 1=1; -- in a web application's log for a user input field is a strong indicator of what kind of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Easy
A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B. SQL Injection
C. Denial of Service (DoS)
D. Phishing

10 Which is the very first phase in a standard incident response plan?

Incident Response Easy
A. Preparation
B. Eradication
C. Containment
D. Detection

11 What is the primary function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Easy
A. To encrypt all data on a hard drive.
B. To block all incoming network traffic.
C. To automatically delete suspicious emails.
D. To monitor network or system activities for malicious activity and report it.

12 In digital forensics, what is the process of creating a bit-for-bit copy of a piece of digital media called?

Digital Forensics Easy
A. Summarizing
B. Copying and Pasting
C. Archiving
D. Imaging

13 What type of information do firewall logs primarily provide to a security analyst?

Data Sources Easy
A. User login and logout times on a specific computer.
B. A list of all software installed on a server.
C. Which websites a user visited using a specific browser.
D. Information about network traffic that was allowed or denied.

14 If a user's computer suddenly has a new, unwanted browser toolbar and is constantly showing pop-up advertisements, it is likely infected with what?

Malware Attack Indicators Easy
A. A boot sector virus
B. A rootkit
C. Adware or Spyware
D. Ransomware

15 Finding an unfamiliar device plugged into a network port in an office is an example of what?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Easy
A. An employee charging their phone.
B. A potential physical and network security breach.
C. A standard network upgrade.
D. A routine software update.

16 What is the main purpose of security monitoring?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Easy
A. To continuously watch systems and networks for signs of security threats.
B. To manage the company's marketing budget.
C. To track employee productivity.
D. To install new software on all computers.

17 What happens during the 'Post-Incident Activity' or 'Lessons Learned' phase of incident response?

Incident Response Easy
A. The team identifies that an incident has occurred.
B. The team erases all evidence of the incident.
C. The team isolates the affected systems from the network.
D. The team analyzes the incident and their response to it to make improvements for the future.

18 Which of the following would be considered a network-based Indicator of Compromise (IoC)?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Easy
A. A user account being created at an unusual time.
B. A new file with a strange name in the C:\Windows directory.
C. An antivirus program being disabled.
D. Unusual outbound traffic to a known malicious IP address.

19 What does NetFlow data provide for security analysis?

Data Sources Easy
A. The passwords used for every user login.
B. Metadata about network conversations (who talked to whom, for how long).
C. The full content of every network packet.
D. A copy of every email sent and received.

20 A large number of failed login attempts from a single IP address for a single user account is an indicator of what type of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Easy
A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B. Phishing
C. Man-in-the-Middle
D. Brute-force attack

21 An organization has detected an active data exfiltration event from a critical database server. According to the NIST incident response lifecycle, what is the most appropriate immediate action during the Containment, Eradication, & Recovery phase?

Incident Response Medium
A. Conduct a full forensic analysis to identify the attacker's TTPs.
B. Disconnect the server from the network to stop the exfiltration.
C. Wipe the server and restore from the most recent backup.
D. Notify regulatory bodies and affected customers of the data breach.

22 A forensic investigator is collecting evidence from a running server that is suspected of being compromised. According to the Order of Volatility, which of the following data types should be collected first?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. Data from the hard disk drive.
B. Network traffic and ARP cache.
C. Archived logs and backup tapes.
D. CPU registers and cache.

23 A Security Operations Center (SOC) analyst is writing a SIEM correlation rule to detect a potential brute-force attack. Which logic would be most effective for this purpose?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. Alert every time a 'login failed' event is generated for an administrator account.
B. Alert when network traffic from a single source exceeds 1 GB/hour.
C. Alert if a single user account has more than 10 failed login attempts followed by 1 successful login from the same IP address within 5 minutes.
D. Alert if any user successfully logs in from an IP address geolocated in a foreign country.

24 A network security analyst needs to investigate a report of slow network performance. They suspect a broadcast storm. Which data source would be most useful for reconstructing the exact sequence of packets and identifying the misconfigured device?

Data Sources Medium
A. Firewall logs showing allowed and denied connections.
B. NetFlow records from a core router.
C. Full Packet Capture (PCAP) data from a network tap.
D. Syslog messages from all network servers.

25 A system administrator notices that standard system utilities like ls and ps are producing unusual or incomplete results. Furthermore, files known to exist are not visible in directory listings, and network connections are not shown by netstat. These symptoms are classic indicators of what type of malware?

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. Adware
B. Spyware
C. Rootkit
D. Ransomware

26 While monitoring network traffic, an analyst observes a large volume of TCP SYN packets directed at a single web server from many different source IPs. The server is responding with SYN-ACK packets, but it is not receiving the final ACK, causing its connection table to fill up. What attack is most likely occurring?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. ARP Poisoning
B. SYN Flood (DDoS)
C. DNS Tunneling
D. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

27 An analyst reviews a web server's access log and finds the following entry: GET /items/view.php?id=123%20OR%201=1. What type of attack should the analyst investigate?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B. SQL Injection (SQLi)
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
D. Directory Traversal

28 What is the primary distinction between an Indicator of Compromise (IoC) and an Indicator of Attack (IoA)?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Medium
A. IoCs are generated by firewalls, while IoAs are generated by antivirus software.
B. IoCs are post-breach evidence (what happened), while IoAs are real-time signs of an ongoing attack (what is happening).
C. IoCs relate to network events, while IoAs relate to endpoint events.
D. IoCs are high-fidelity alerts, while IoAs are low-fidelity alerts that require correlation.

29 Why is it standard practice for a digital forensics investigator to create a cryptographic hash (e.g., SHA-256) of an evidence drive both before and after creating a forensic image?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. To identify and remove any malware present on the original drive.
B. To compress the forensic image for more efficient storage.
C. To prove that the imaging process did not alter the original evidence.
D. To encrypt the evidence drive for secure storage.

30 During the 'Lessons Learned' meeting in the Post-Incident Activity phase, what is the primary goal for the incident response team?

Incident Response Medium
A. To brief the executive leadership team on the successful containment of the threat.
B. To identify gaps in security controls and update the incident response plan.
C. To assign blame for the security failures that led to the incident.
D. To calculate the total financial cost of the incident for insurance purposes.

31 An organization wants to proactively detect suspicious activities on its endpoints, such as a Microsoft Word process spawning a PowerShell command. Which security tool is specifically designed to provide this level of visibility and detection?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR)
B. Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)
C. Network Access Control (NAC)
D. Web Application Firewall (WAF)

32 A security analyst correlates several events: 1) A user received a spear-phishing email. 2) A short time later, a PowerShell process was observed downloading a file. 3) The endpoint began communicating with a known command-and-control server. This sequence of events is best described as:

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Medium
A. A security policy violation.
B. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack.
C. An attack chain or kill chain.
D. A vulnerability scan.

33 An analyst notices that their workstation's ARP table intermittently shows the MAC address for the default gateway changing to the MAC address of another workstation on the same subnet. This is a strong indicator of what type of attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Medium
A. DNS Hijacking
B. ARP Poisoning
C. IP Spoofing
D. MAC Flooding

34 Users are reporting that when they try to browse to legitimate websites, they are frequently redirected to malicious sites. A network analyst inspects DNS traffic and sees that DNS queries for google.com are being answered by an unauthorized internal server, not the configured external DNS server. This most likely indicates:

Malware Attack Indicators Medium
A. A worm propagating across the local network.
B. A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack against the external DNS server.
C. A BGP hijacking attack affecting the entire internet.
D. DNS cache poisoning on the endpoints or a compromised local DNS server.

35 A web application's error log is filled with messages indicating that a user is attempting to access files such as ../../../../etc/passwd. This activity is a clear indicator of which type of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Medium
A. Buffer Overflow
B. Insecure Deserialization
C. XML External Entity (XXE) Injection
D. Directory Traversal

36 A SOC needs to monitor user authentication behavior across multiple different systems (Windows, Linux, VPN, web apps) to detect credential stuffing attacks. Which data source would be the most effective to centralize and analyze for this purpose?

Data Sources Medium
A. Endpoint process monitoring logs from an EDR tool.
B. Web server access logs.
C. NetFlow data from network switches.
D. Centralized authentication and security event logs.

37 A company is developing its incident response plan and wants to establish clear criteria for when an event should be escalated to a full-blown incident. Which of the following would be the best criteria to trigger an incident declaration?

Incident Response Medium
A. Evidence of unauthorized access to a system containing sensitive customer data.
B. When a single user reports they are unable to access a file share.
C. Any alert generated by the Intrusion Detection System (IDS).
D. The detection of a port scan from an external IP address.

38 What is the primary purpose of maintaining a strict 'Chain of Custody' for a piece of digital evidence?

Digital Forensics Medium
A. To document every person who handled the evidence, to ensure its integrity and admissibility in legal proceedings.
B. To provide a backup copy of the evidence in case the original is damaged.
C. To create a timeline of the security incident for the management report.
D. To track the financial cost associated with the forensic investigation.

39 What is a key advantage of a Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platform over a traditional Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Medium
A. SOAR focuses exclusively on network traffic analysis, while SIEM focuses on logs.
B. SOAR provides long-term log storage and retention for compliance purposes.
C. SOAR can automate and coordinate response actions across multiple tools based on predefined playbooks.
D. SOAR is the only tool capable of collecting logs from different sources.

40 A large enterprise has established a dedicated Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT). What is the primary role of this team within the organization?

Explain Incident Response and Monitoring Concepts Medium
A. To be the central point of coordination and expertise for responding to cybersecurity incidents.
B. To conduct routine compliance audits against standards like PCI DSS and HIPAA.
C. To develop new software applications for the company.
D. To perform daily system administration tasks and patch management.

41 An incident response team is handling a sophisticated APT attack. During the 'Containment' phase (NIST SP 800-61), they discover the attacker has established persistence on a domain controller but is currently dormant. The 'Eradication' plan requires rebuilding the DC from a trusted source, which will cause a 4-hour outage for critical business services. Executive leadership is pushing to delay the rebuild to minimize business impact. What is the most defensible course of action for the IR lead?

Incident Response Hard
A. Proceed with immediate eradication despite the outage, citing the risk of the APT reactivating and causing greater damage.
B. Isolate the DC from the network segments containing critical data, but leave it online to maintain authentication services for less sensitive systems.
C. Implement additional monitoring on the compromised DC and delay eradication until a scheduled maintenance window, accepting the risk.
D. Negotiate a shorter outage window with leadership by presenting a risk analysis that quantifies the potential financial loss of APT reactivation versus the quantified loss from the outage.

42 During a forensic analysis of a Windows NTFS filesystem, an investigator examines the STANDARD_INFORMATION attribute for the same file has a file creation timestamp of 2023-10-26 14:45:00. What does this temporal anomaly most strongly indicate?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. The file was created on a different system with an incorrect clock and then copied to the target system.
B. The system clock was adjusted between the file's creation and when its metadata was written.
C. This is a normal artifact of the NTFS journaling process and does not indicate malicious activity.
D. An anti-forensics technique known as 'timestomping' was used to alter the FILE_NAME timestamps were left unchanged.

43 A SOC needs to detect an advanced data exfiltration technique where a malicious actor is using DNS tunneling to send small chunks of encrypted data within TXT record queries for a domain they control (e.g., <encoded_data>.malicious.com). Which data source would be the most effective for reliably detecting and analyzing this specific threat?

Data Sources Hard
A. NetFlow data showing high volumes of UDP port 53 traffic to the attacker's DNS server.
B. Web proxy logs, as they capture all HTTP/HTTPS traffic which may include DNS over HTTPS.
C. Zeek (formerly Bro) DNS logs or full packet captures that record the full content of DNS queries and responses.
D. Firewall logs showing a large number of allowed connections to the attacker's DNS server IP.

44 While analyzing a memory dump from a compromised server using Volatility, you identify a svchost.exe process whose parent process ID (PPID) does not correspond to the legitimate services.exe. Furthermore, this svchost.exe process has loaded wininet.dll and has an active network connection to a non-standard port on an external IP. This combination of indicators is most characteristic of what malware technique?

Malware Attack Indicators Hard
A. A bootkit that has modified the kernel to launch processes.
B. A worm spreading via the SMB protocol, which legitimately uses svchost.exe.
C. A ransomware variant encrypting files in a background service.
D. Process hollowing or process injection, where malware has injected its code into a legitimate svchost.exe instance.

45 An analyst observes the following alert: "A PowerShell process was launched with the command line arguments `-NoP -NonI -W Hidden -Exec Bypass -EncodedCommand [long base64 string]...". According to David J. Bianco's 'Pyramid of Pain', what level of indicator does this alert primarily represent?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Hard
A. Tools / TTPs
B. Network/Host Artifacts
C. Hash Values
D. IP Addresses

46 The security team for an e-commerce site notices that certain API search endpoints, which use a backend Elasticsearch cluster, experience catastrophic performance degradation when queries contain nested clauses and a high number of leading wildcard characters (e.g., *keyword*). Application performance monitoring shows CPU usage on the Elasticsearch nodes spiking to 100%, but no database errors are logged. This is a classic indicator of what type of attack?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. Time-based Blind SQL Injection
B. Regular Expression Denial of Service (ReDoS)
C. Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) targeting the API

47 Network monitoring reveals a slow, steady stream of ICMP Echo Reply packets originating from a database server and sent to a single external IP address. No corresponding ICMP Echo Requests are observed entering the network destined for that server. The payload size of the replies is consistently non-standard (e.g., 128 bytes) and appears to be random data. What is the most plausible explanation for this traffic?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Hard
A. Data is being exfiltrated covertly using ICMP as a C2 channel, with the payload of the Echo Replies containing the stolen data.
B. This is normal traffic from a network monitoring tool checking the server's uptime.
C. The server is misconfigured and is stuck in a ping loop with an external host.
D. A stateful firewall is malfunctioning and dropping inbound ICMP requests while allowing outbound replies.

48 A Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) platform is configured with a playbook that, upon receiving a 'Malware Detected' alert from an EDR, automatically isolates the host and submits the malware hash to a threat intelligence platform. However, the SOC is being overwhelmed by alerts for polymorphic malware, where every new infection has a unique hash, rendering the hash-submission step useless. What is the most effective enhancement to this SOAR playbook to provide more durable defense?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools
A. Modify the playbook to extract and submit the C2 domain or IP address from the EDR alert instead of the file hash.
B. Integrate a sandbox to detonate the malware, but continue to only submit the hash of the original sample.
C. Increase the severity score of the alert each time a new hash is detected to get more attention.
D. Add a step to automatically delete the detected file from all other workstations.

49 An investigator is performing live response on a Linux system suspected of having a kernel-level rootkit. Which of the following forensic procedures would be the MOST reliable for uncovering evidence of such a rootkit?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. Checking the contents of the /proc/modules and /sys/module directories for any unusually named kernel modules.
B. Comparing the output of ls -al /bin on the suspect system with the output from a known-good system.
C. Running the chkrootkit and rkhunter tools directly on the suspect system.
D. Acquiring a full memory dump of the live system and analyzing the System Call Table in memory against a known-good profile for that kernel version.

50 In the context of the SANS/PICERL incident response framework, what is a key strategic difference between the 'Containment' and 'Eradication' phases when dealing with a human-operated ransomware attack?

Incident Response Hard
A. Containment is about blocking C2 IP addresses, while Eradication is about patching the vulnerability that was exploited.
B. Containment is performed by the Tier 1 SOC analysts, while Eradication is exclusively handled by the digital forensics team.
C. Containment focuses on identifying all compromised hosts, while Eradication focuses on restoring from backups.
D. Containment involves short-term actions to stop the immediate bleeding (e.g., isolating network segments), while Eradication involves removing all attacker artifacts, which may include rebuilding entire systems.

51 A security analyst is hunting for 'living-off-the-land' lateral movement activity, specifically the use of Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) to execute commands on remote systems. To create a high-fidelity detection rule, which combination of data sources and correlated events would be most effective?

Data Sources Hard
A. Firewall logs showing traffic on TCP port 135 (RPC) between workstations.
B. Windows System Event logs on the source host showing WMI service start/stop events.
C. Correlation of a source host's process execution log (e.g., Sysmon Event ID 1) showing wmiprvse.exe spawning a process, with a destination host's Windows Security Event ID 4624 (Logon Type 3) from the source host's IP within a short time window.
D. Windows Security Event ID 4624 (Logon Success) with Logon Type 3 (Network) on the destination host.

52 A web application's login page suddenly begins responding with a generic HTTP 500 - Internal Server Error for any failed login attempt, whereas previously it gave specific 'Invalid Username' or 'Invalid Password' messages. Simultaneously, monitoring shows a spike in failed login attempts from a single IP address. This change in application behavior is a strong indicator of what?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. The web application firewall (WAF) is misconfigured and is now blocking legitimate error messages.
B. An attacker is exploiting a user enumeration vulnerability and the application has been patched mid-attack, resulting in the new generic error.
C. An attacker successfully modified the application's source code to hide their tracks.
D. A brute-force password guessing attack that is overloading the authentication service.

53 An EDR alert fires for rundll32.exe executing a command containing javascript:"..\mshtml,RunHTMLApplication ". The process also initiates a network connection to download a file with an .hta extension. This specific sequence is a well-known method for bypassing application controls and is a strong indicator of what type of fileless execution payload?

Malware Attack Indicators Hard
A. A Java Drive-By-Download exploit.
B. A PowerShell Empire stager.
C. An HTML Application (HTA) payload delivered by an initial dropper.
D. A malicious macro embedded in a Word document.

54 A security analyst correlates two pieces of information: 1) An EDR alert showing lsass.exe was accessed by powershell.exe on a server, and 2) A network alert for Kerberos TGS-REQ packets containing RC4-HMAC encrypted data originating from that same server. What specific credential theft technique, associated with the MITRE ATT&CK framework, do these combined indicators point to?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Hard
A. Kerberoasting (T1558.003)
B. Pass-the-Hash (PtH)
C. Golden Ticket (T1558.001)
D. DCSync (T1003.006)

55 A SIEM is configured with a rule to detect 5 failed logins followed by 1 successful login from the same IP for the same user within 1 minute. This rule is generating a high number of false positives from a sales department where users frequently mistype their passwords. Which of the following is the most effective tuning strategy to reduce false positives without significantly increasing the risk of missing a real brute-force attack?

Alerting and Monitoring Tools Hard
A. Decrease the time window from 1 minute to 10 seconds.
B. Increase the threshold to 50 failed logins.
C. Whitelist the IP range of the entire sales department.
D. Modify the rule to only trigger if the successful login originates from a different geographic location or ASN than the failed logins.

56 A wireless intrusion detection system (WIDS) generates an alert for a 'deauthentication flood' attack targeting the corporate Wi-Fi network's main access point. Simultaneously, a new open Wi-Fi network with an SSID identical to the corporate one (e.g., 'CorpWifi') appears. What is the primary goal of this combined attack?

Physical and Network Attack Indicators Hard
A. To perform a denial-of-service attack to disrupt business operations.
B. To drain the battery life of connected mobile devices by forcing them to constantly re-authenticate.
C. To force legitimate users to disconnect from the corporate network and reconnect to the attacker's rogue AP for a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. To identify weaknesses in the WPA2-PSK key by capturing the 4-way handshake from multiple devices.

57 Your company has just suffered a data breach where customer PII was exfiltrated by a known cybercrime group. Legal counsel has advised that you must preserve evidence for potential litigation and law enforcement investigation. However, the forensics team reports that the malware used by the attackers includes a logic bomb set to securely wipe the drives of all compromised servers in 24 hours. This presents a direct conflict between:

Incident Response Hard
A. The Identification and Eradication phases of incident response.
B. Evidence preservation (for forensics) and incident containment (preventing further damage).
C. The principles of 'Order of Volatility' and 'Chain of Custody'.
D. Business continuity and cybersecurity insurance requirements.

58 An examiner is analyzing a Windows memory dump and wants to find evidence of a fileless malware that was executed via reflective DLL injection. Which of the following Volatility plugin outputs would provide the most direct evidence of this specific technique?

Digital Forensics Hard
A. netscan showing an established connection from a legitimate process like explorer.exe.
B. dlllist showing all loaded DLLs for each process.
C. pslist showing a process with a suspicious name.
D. malfind identifying injected code in a process's memory that has no corresponding module on disk and has PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE memory protection.

59 A web application log shows a successful authenticated request from a user to the endpoint /api/v1/update_profile. The JSON body of the request contains the expected parameters: {"email": "user@example.com", "phone": "555-1234"}. However, a subsequent log entry from the same session shows another request to the same endpoint with the body: {"email": "user@example.com", "phone": "555-1234", "isAdmin": true}. The application accepted this request and the user was successfully elevated to an administrator. This indicates what specific type of application vulnerability?

Application Attack Indicators Hard
A. Mass Assignment Vulnerability
B. Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
C. Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR)
D. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

60 A security analyst is investigating an alert and finds the following command executed on a domain controller: ntdsutil.exe 'ac i ntds' 'ifm' 'create full C:\temp' q q. This command, when successfully executed by a privileged user, is a strong Indicator of Attack (IoA) for which specific adversarial objective?

Analyze Indicators of Malicious Activity Hard
A. Lateral movement using WMI or PsExec.
B. Establishing persistence via a new service creation.
C. Disabling security tools and clearing event logs.
D. Credential Access via offline dumping of the Active Directory database.