1What is the primary definition of Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?
A.Managing physical hardware through manual wiring.
B.Managing and provisioning computer data centers through machine-readable definition files.
C.Writing code to build software applications only.
D.The process of installing operating systems manually using ISO files.
Correct Answer: Managing and provisioning computer data centers through machine-readable definition files.
Explanation:Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is the managing and provisioning of computer data centers through machine-readable definition files, rather than physical hardware configuration or interactive configuration tools.
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2In the context of IaC, what does Idempotency mean?
A.The code runs faster every time it is executed.
B.The code deletes the infrastructure after execution.
C.The result of executing the code multiple times is the same as executing it once.
D.The code changes the server configuration randomly.
Correct Answer: The result of executing the code multiple times is the same as executing it once.
Explanation:Idempotency ensures that applying an IaC configuration multiple times produces the same result, preventing configuration drift or duplication of resources.
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3Which of the following describes a Declarative approach to IaC?
A.Defining the specific commands to achieve a configuration (e.g., run this, then run that).
B.Defining the desired state of the system, leaving the 'how' to the tool.
C.Manually clicking through a GUI to set up a server.
D.Writing a shell script with strict if-then logic.
Correct Answer: Defining the desired state of the system, leaving the 'how' to the tool.
Explanation:In a declarative approach, the user defines the desired state (e.g., 'ensure Nginx is installed'), and the IaC tool determines the necessary steps to reach that state.
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4What is Configuration Drift?
A.The process of moving servers from one physical location to another.
B.When the actual configuration of a server diverges from the defined IaC template.
C.The speed at which code is deployed to production.
D.Migrating from a virtual machine to a container.
Correct Answer: When the actual configuration of a server diverges from the defined IaC template.
Explanation:Configuration drift occurs when ad-hoc manual changes are made to a system, causing its state to differ from the source of truth defined in the IaC code.
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5Which concept refers to replacing infrastructure rather than updating it in place?
A.Mutable Infrastructure
B.Immutable Infrastructure
C.Legacy Infrastructure
D.Physical Infrastructure
Correct Answer: Immutable Infrastructure
Explanation:Immutable Infrastructure is a paradigm where servers are never modified after deployment. If an update is needed, new servers are built from a common image, and the old ones are destroyed.
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6Which of the following is primarily considered an Infrastructure Provisioning tool?
A.Terraform
B.Git
C.Jenkins
D.Nagios
Correct Answer: Terraform
Explanation:Terraform is an open-source infrastructure as code software tool primarily used for provisioning infrastructure across various cloud providers.
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7Which of the following is primarily considered a Configuration Management tool?
A.Terraform
B.Ansible
C.Docker
D.VMware ESXi
Correct Answer: Ansible
Explanation:Ansible is primarily a configuration management tool used to configure systems, deploy software, and orchestrate more advanced IT tasks.
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8In IaC, what is the role of Version Control?
A.To speed up the internet connection of the server.
B.To track changes, collaborate on code, and roll back configurations if necessary.
C.To compile binary files for the operating system.
D.To manage the power supply of the data center.
Correct Answer: To track changes, collaborate on code, and roll back configurations if necessary.
Explanation:Version control systems like Git allow teams to track every change to the infrastructure code, enabling collaboration, auditing, and easy rollbacks.
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9What is the Push Model in configuration management?
A.Nodes periodically check a central server for updates.
B.A central server initiates the connection to nodes to apply configurations.
C.Developers push code to a Git repository.
D.Users push buttons to start servers.
Correct Answer: A central server initiates the connection to nodes to apply configurations.
Explanation:In the Push Model (used by tools like Ansible), a controlling server pushes the configuration and software updates to the target nodes.
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10What is the Pull Model in configuration management?
A.Agents on the nodes periodically poll a central server for configuration updates.
B.Administrators manually pull cables to reset servers.
C.The server pulls data from the internet.
D.A master node forces updates onto the clients immediately.
Correct Answer: Agents on the nodes periodically poll a central server for configuration updates.
Explanation:In the Pull Model (used by tools like Puppet and Chef), agents installed on the target nodes periodically check (poll) the central server to see if the configuration has changed.
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11What is Git?
A.A centralized file storage server.
B.A Distributed Version Control System (DVCS).
C.A programming language for system administration.
D.A container orchestration tool.
Correct Answer: A Distributed Version Control System (DVCS).
Explanation:Git is a distributed version control system for tracking changes in source code during software development.
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12Which command initializes a new Git repository?
A.git start
B.git new
C.git init
D.git create
Correct Answer: git init
Explanation:The git init command creates a new Git repository. It can be used to convert an existing, unversioned project to a Git repository or initialize a new, empty repository.
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13Which command allows you to view the status of files in the working directory and staging area?
A.git log
B.git info
C.git status
D.git show
Correct Answer: git status
Explanation:The git status command displays the state of the working directory and the staging area, showing which changes have been staged, which haven't, and which files aren't being tracked.
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14What is the Staging Area in Git?
A.The production server where code is deployed.
B.A file in the .git directory that stores information about what will go into your next commit.
C.The remote repository on GitHub.
D.A backup folder on an external drive.
Correct Answer: A file in the .git directory that stores information about what will go into your next commit.
Explanation:The staging area (or index) is an intermediate place where you list changes you want to include in the next commit.
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15Which command is used to record changes to the repository?
A.git save
B.git commit
C.git push
D.git record
Correct Answer: git commit
Explanation:git commit captures a snapshot of the project's currently staged changes.
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16How do you download an existing remote repository to your local machine?
A.git copy
B.git mirror
C.git clone
D.git download
Correct Answer: git clone
Explanation:git clone is used to create a copy of a specific repository or branch within a repository on your local machine.
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17What is the purpose of a Branch in Git?
A.To delete old code.
B.To diverge from the main line of development and continue work without messing with that main line.
C.To connect to a remote server.
D.To compile the code.
Correct Answer: To diverge from the main line of development and continue work without messing with that main line.
Explanation:Branching allows you to develop features, fix bugs, or safely experiment with new ideas in a contained area of your repository.
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18Which command combines a specific branch into the current branch?
A.git combine
B.git join
C.git merge
D.git fuse
Correct Answer: git merge
Explanation:git merge is used to join two or more development histories together.
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19What is the difference between git pull and git fetch?
A.git pull only downloads data; git fetch downloads and merges.
B.git fetch downloads data to your local repo but does not merge it; git pull downloads and merges.
C.They are identical commands.
D.git fetch deletes remote branches.
Correct Answer: git fetch downloads data to your local repo but does not merge it; git pull downloads and merges.
Explanation:git fetch gets all the changes from the remote repository but does not integrate them into your working files. git pull performs a fetch followed immediately by a merge.
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20What is the function of the .gitignore file?
A.It lists files that Git should delete.
B.It stores the user's password.
C.It specifies intentionally untracked files to ignore.
D.It ignores all git commands in a specific folder.
Correct Answer: It specifies intentionally untracked files to ignore.
Explanation:The .gitignore file tells Git which files (or patterns) it should ignore, preventing them from being tracked or committed (e.g., log files, build artifacts).
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21What is the core concept of Virtualization?
A.Running multiple operating systems simultaneously on a single physical machine.
B.Connecting multiple physical machines to act as one.
C.Running software without an operating system.
D.Compressing files to save space.
Correct Answer: Running multiple operating systems simultaneously on a single physical machine.
Explanation:Virtualization allows the creation of a virtual version of a resource, such as an operating system, server, storage device, or network resource, allowing multiple OSs to run on one hardware set.
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22What is a Hypervisor?
A.A high-speed processor.
B.Software that creates and runs virtual machines.
C.A monitor with high resolution.
D.The administrator account on a Linux server.
Correct Answer: Software that creates and runs virtual machines.
Explanation:A hypervisor (or virtual machine monitor, VMM) is software, firmware, or hardware that creates and runs virtual machines.
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23Which of the following defines a Type 1 Hypervisor?
A.It runs as an application inside a host operating system.
B.It runs directly on the system's hardware (Bare Metal).
C.It is used primarily for desktop virtualization.
D.It requires Windows to run.
Correct Answer: It runs directly on the system's hardware (Bare Metal).
Explanation:Type 1 hypervisors (Bare Metal) run directly on the host's hardware to control the hardware and to manage guest operating systems (e.g., VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V).
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24Which of the following is an example of a Type 2 Hypervisor?
A.VMware ESXi
B.Xen
C.Oracle VirtualBox
D.Microsoft Hyper-V Server
Correct Answer: Oracle VirtualBox
Explanation:Type 2 hypervisors (Hosted) run on a conventional operating system just as other computer programs do (e.g., VirtualBox, VMware Workstation).
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25In virtualization, what is the Host OS?
A.The operating system running inside the virtual machine.
B.The physical computer's operating system upon which a Type 2 hypervisor runs.
C.The operating system used to browse the internet.
D.The cloud provider's billing system.
Correct Answer: The physical computer's operating system upon which a Type 2 hypervisor runs.
Explanation:The Host OS is the operating system of the physical computer, while the Guest OS is the operating system running inside the virtual machine.
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26What is a Container?
A.A heavy virtual machine with its own kernel.
B.A standard unit of software that packages up code and all its dependencies.
C.A physical box used to ship servers.
D.A database storage unit.
Correct Answer: A standard unit of software that packages up code and all its dependencies.
Explanation:A container is a standard unit of software that packages up code and all its dependencies so the application runs quickly and reliably from one computing environment to another.
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27What is the key difference between Virtual Machines (VMs) and Containers?
A.Containers virtualize the hardware; VMs virtualize the OS.
B.VMs include a full OS; Containers share the host OS kernel.
C.Containers differ only in color; functionally they are the same.
D.VMs are faster to boot than containers.
Correct Answer: VMs include a full OS; Containers share the host OS kernel.
Explanation:VMs virtualize the hardware and include a full copy of an OS. Containers virtualize the operating system and share the host's kernel, making them more lightweight.
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28Which Linux kernel feature allows containers to have their own isolated view of the system (Process IDs, Mounts, Networks)?
A.Hypervisors
B.Namespaces
C.Drivers
D.Interrupts
Correct Answer: Namespaces
Explanation:Namespaces provide the isolation needed for containers, ensuring that processes in one container cannot see or affect processes in another.
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29Which Linux kernel feature is used to limit the resource usage (CPU, Memory) of a container?
A.cgroups (Control Groups)
B.Symlinks
C.Inodes
D.Tables
Correct Answer: cgroups (Control Groups)
Explanation:Control Groups (cgroups) allow the system administrator to allocate resources—such as CPU time, system memory, network bandwidth, or combinations of these resources—among user-defined groups of tasks (containers).
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30What is Docker?
A.A hardware manufacturer.
B.A platform for developing, shipping, and running applications in containers.
C.A new programming language.
D.A virtualization hypervisor for Windows only.
Correct Answer: A platform for developing, shipping, and running applications in containers.
Explanation:Docker is an open platform for developing, shipping, and running applications using container virtualization technology.
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31What is a Dockerfile?
A.A text document that contains all the commands to assemble a Docker image.
B.A compiled binary file.
C.A log file generated by a container.
D.The main configuration file for the Docker daemon.
Correct Answer: A text document that contains all the commands to assemble a Docker image.
Explanation:A Dockerfile is a text document that contains all the commands a user could call on the command line to assemble an image.
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32In a Dockerfile, what does the FROM instruction do?
A.Sends an email from the container.
B.Initializes a new build stage and sets the Base Image.
C.Copies files from the host.
D.Exposes a network port.
Correct Answer: Initializes a new build stage and sets the Base Image.
Explanation:Every valid Dockerfile must start with a FROM instruction (except for global args), which specifies the parent image to use.
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33Which command is used to create an image from a Dockerfile?
A.docker create
B.docker run
C.docker build
D.docker compile
Correct Answer: docker build
Explanation:The docker build command builds an image from a Dockerfile and a 'context' (the set of files at a specified location).
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34Which command starts a container from an image?
A.docker start-image
B.docker run
C.docker execute
D.docker boot
Correct Answer: docker run
Explanation:docker run creates a writeable container layer over the specified image and prepares it for running the specified command.
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35What is a Docker Registry?
A.A list of all active containers on a host.
B.A stateless, highly scalable server side application that stores and lets you distribute Docker images.
C.A specialized CPU register for containers.
D.The registration form to use Docker.
Correct Answer: A stateless, highly scalable server side application that stores and lets you distribute Docker images.
Explanation:A Registry is a repository for Docker images (e.g., Docker Hub, Google Container Registry). It allows users to pull and push images.
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36What is Container Orchestration?
A.Writing music for containers.
B.The automated arrangement, coordination, and management of complex computer systems and services (containers).
C.Manually starting containers one by one.
D.The process of deleting old containers.
Correct Answer: The automated arrangement, coordination, and management of complex computer systems and services (containers).
Explanation:Container orchestration tools (like Kubernetes) automate the deployment, management, scaling, and networking of containers.
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37Which of the following is the most popular open-source container orchestration system?
A.VirtualBox
B.Kubernetes
C.Git
D.Ansible
Correct Answer: Kubernetes
Explanation:Kubernetes (K8s) is the industry-standard open-source system for automating deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications.
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38In Docker, what is a Volume used for?
A.Adjusting the sound level of the application.
B.Persisting data generated by and used by Docker containers.
C.Measuring the size of the container.
D.Networking multiple containers.
Correct Answer: Persisting data generated by and used by Docker containers.
Explanation:Volumes are the preferred mechanism for persisting data generated by and used by Docker containers, as container filesystems are ephemeral by default.
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39What is Docker Compose?
A.A tool for defining and running multi-container Docker applications.
B.A musical tool for developers.
C.A replacement for the Linux kernel.
D.A virus scanner for containers.
Correct Answer: A tool for defining and running multi-container Docker applications.
Explanation:Docker Compose is a tool that uses a YAML file to configure your application's services, allowing you to create and start all the services from your configuration with a single command.
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40When deploying a container, what does 'Port Mapping' (e.g., -p 8080:80) do?
A.It connects two containers together internally.
B.It maps a port on the host machine to a port inside the container.
C.It blocks traffic on port 8080.
D.It speeds up network traffic.
Correct Answer: It maps a port on the host machine to a port inside the container.
Explanation:Port mapping allows external access to the container. -p 8080:80 maps TCP port 8080 on the host to TCP port 80 inside the container.
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41What defines a Microservices Architecture?
A.Building an application as a single, monolithic unit.
B.Structuring an application as a collection of loosely coupled, independently deployable services.
C.Using very small servers.
D.Writing code in Assembly language.
Correct Answer: Structuring an application as a collection of loosely coupled, independently deployable services.
Explanation:Microservices involve breaking an application into smaller, independent services that communicate over APIs, which fits well with containerization.
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42Which of the following represents a mathematical representation of Virtualization Efficiency () if is resources used and is total resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Efficiency is typically calculated as the ratio of useful output (or used resources) to total input (or total available resources), often expressed as a percentage.
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43What is Paravirtualization?
A.A technique where the guest OS is unmodified.
B.A technique where the guest OS is modified to communicate with the hypervisor for better performance.
C.Virtualization that only works on parallel ports.
D.Running two hypervisors side by side.
Correct Answer: A technique where the guest OS is modified to communicate with the hypervisor for better performance.
Explanation:In paravirtualization, the guest operating system is modified to be aware of the virtualization layer, allowing it to make efficient hypercalls directly to the hypervisor.
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44What is a Snapshot in virtualization?
A.A picture of the physical server.
B.A copy of the virtual machine's disk file (VMDK) and memory state at a specific point in time.
C.A short video of the VM booting.
D.A printout of the code.
Correct Answer: A copy of the virtual machine's disk file (VMDK) and memory state at a specific point in time.
Explanation:Snapshots preserve the state and data of a virtual machine at a specific point in time, allowing administrators to revert to that state if an update fails.
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45What is Live Migration (e.g., vMotion)?
A.Moving a physical server while it is running.
B.Moving a running virtual machine from one physical host to another without downtime.
C.Copying files from one folder to another.
D.Installing an OS while the computer is on.
Correct Answer: Moving a running virtual machine from one physical host to another without downtime.
Explanation:Live migration allows a running VM to move between physical hosts with zero (or near-zero) interruption to the service.
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46In the context of container deployment, what is the 'Golden Image' concept?
A.The most expensive version of Docker.
B.A master image that is pre-configured, secured, and used as a template for all containers.
C.An image painted in gold color.
D.The default background image of the OS.
Correct Answer: A master image that is pre-configured, secured, and used as a template for all containers.
Explanation:A Golden Image is a template for a virtual machine or container that has been pre-configured with necessary software and security settings, ensuring consistency.
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47What is the primary benefit of Layering in Docker images?
A.It makes images heavier.
B.It allows caching and reuse of common layers, speeding up builds and reducing storage.
C.It encrypts the data.
D.It creates a graphical user interface.
Correct Answer: It allows caching and reuse of common layers, speeding up builds and reducing storage.
Explanation:Docker images are built in layers. If a layer hasn't changed, Docker reuses the cached layer, making builds faster and saving disk space.
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48Which Git command is used to fix a merge conflict after you have manually resolved the file contents?
A.git conflict resolved
B.git add <filename>
C.git fix
D.git clean
Correct Answer: git add <filename>
Explanation:After manually editing files to resolve conflicts, you must run git add to mark them as resolved before committing.
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49If a system has physical cores and uses hyper-threading (2 threads per core), how many vCPUs are generally available for virtualization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:With hyper-threading, each physical core exposes two execution contexts (logical processors), effectively providing vCPUs to the hypervisor.
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50What is the main security concern regarding Privileged Containers?
A.They cost more money.
B.They grant the container root capabilities on the host machine, bypassing isolation.
C.They cannot access the internet.
D.They are too slow.
Correct Answer: They grant the container root capabilities on the host machine, bypassing isolation.
Explanation:Running a container in privileged mode gives it access to all devices on the host and bypasses many security isolation features, posing a significant security risk.
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