Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

PEL175 50 Questions
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1 What is the primary characteristic of an impromptu presentation?

A. It is always longer than 20 minutes
B. It requires a complete slide deck
C. It is delivered with little to no preparation
D. It is rehearsed for several days

2 In the context of micro-presentations, what is the ideal structure to follow?

A. Body - Introduction - Conclusion
B. Introduction - Body - Conclusion
C. Introduction - Conclusion - Body
D. Conclusion - Body - Introduction

3 Which of the following is a key element of grooming for a professional presentation?

A. Having unkempt hair
B. Wearing clean, ironed, and appropriate attire
C. Chewing gum while speaking
D. Wearing distracting jewelry

4 What does the 'Sandwich Method' refer to in the context of feedback?

A. Listing only negative points rapidly
B. Placing negative feedback between two layers of positive feedback
C. Eating before giving feedback
D. Giving feedback only during lunch breaks

5 In non-verbal communication, what does crossed arms typically signify?

A. Openness and acceptance
B. Deep relaxation
C. Excitement and joy
D. Defensiveness or resistance

6 Which term describes the variation in the pitch of the voice to convey meaning and emotion?

A. Articulation
B. Pronunciation
C. Voice Modulation
D. Vocabulary

7 What is the average conversational rate of speech considered ideal for public speaking?

A. 300+ words per minute
B. 120 – 150 words per minute
C. 200 – 250 words per minute
D. 60 – 80 words per minute

8 In a Group Discussion (GD), what is the primary role of the initiator?

A. To start the discussion by defining the topic and setting the context
B. To criticize everyone's points immediately
C. To stay silent until the end
D. To conclude the discussion instantly

9 What is Glossophobia?

A. Fear of open spaces
B. Fear of listening
C. Fear of public speaking
D. Fear of writing

10 Which technique is recommended to answer behavioral interview questions?

A. The SILENCE method
B. The RANDOM method
C. The STAR method
D. The YES/NO method

11 When organizing an event, who is primarily responsible for steering the flow of the program on stage?

A. The security guard
B. The caterer
C. The technician
D. The Master of Ceremonies (MC)

12 Which of the following is a sign of active listening during a Group Discussion?

A. Checking your phone
B. Nodding and maintaining eye contact
C. Planning your lunch while others speak
D. Interrupting the speaker repeatedly

13 In the context of voice, what does 'monotone' mean?

A. Speaking very loudly
B. Speaking very fast
C. Speaking with high energy
D. Speaking at a single, unvaried pitch

14 What is the purpose of a 'Vote of Thanks' in event organization?

A. To restart the event from the beginning
B. To formally express gratitude to organizers, guests, and attendees
C. To critique the speakers
D. To list the budget of the event

15 During a presentation, how should one handle nervousness?

A. Practice deep breathing and preparation techniques
B. Apologize profusely for being nervous
C. Avoid eye contact with everyone
D. Run off the stage

16 What is the 7-38-55 rule of communication by Albert Mehrabian?

A. 7% Words, 38% Tone, 55% Body Language
B. 7% Words, 38% Body Language, 55% Tone
C. 7% Body Language, 38% Tone, 55% Words
D. 7% Tone, 38% Words, 55% Body Language

17 Which gesture is generally considered rude in many cultures during a speech?

A. Open palms
B. Smiling
C. Stepping forward
D. Finger pointing at the audience

18 In an interview, what is the best way to answer: 'Tell me about yourself'?

A. Talk about your hobbies and family only
B. Recite your entire life history from childhood
C. Summarize your professional background, skills, and current goals
D. Refuse to answer as it is personal

19 What is the function of pausing during a speech?

A. To distract the audience
B. To show you forgot your lines
C. To waste time
D. To emphasize a point or let information sink in

20 In a Group Discussion, if two participants are arguing aggressively, what should you do?

A. Join the argument and shout louder
B. Ignore them and look at the ceiling
C. Leave the room
D. Politely intervene to mediate and bring the group back to the topic

21 Which of the following is an example of poor stage manners?

A. Turning your back to the audience to read slides
B. Standing upright
C. Smiling at the audience
D. Holding the microphone correctly

22 What is 'Proxemics' in the context of body language?

A. Study of time
B. Study of spatial separation (personal space)
C. Study of touch
D. Study of eye contact

23 When using visual aids in a micro-presentation, the text on slides should be:

A. Long paragraphs
B. Bullet points and concise
C. Very small font
D. Entirely in capital letters

24 What does the 'S' in the STAR interview technique stand for?

A. Situation
B. Summary
C. Strategy
D. Strength

25 Which exercise helps improve articulation and pronunciation?

A. Running
B. Meditation
C. Silent reading
D. Tongue twisters

26 In an impromptu speech, what is the PREP method?

A. Pause, Review, Eat, Play
B. Plan, Rehearse, Evaluate, Post
C. Prepare, Read, Edit, Present
D. Point, Reason, Example, Point

27 What is the significance of eye contact during a presentation?

A. It intimidates the audience
B. It is not necessary
C. It helps you read your notes better
D. It establishes a connection and builds trust

28 When receiving feedback, one should avoid:

A. Listening carefully
B. Becoming defensive and making excuses
C. Taking notes
D. Asking for clarification

29 Which of the following is a paralinguistic feature?

A. The grammar
B. The volume and tone of voice
C. The words used
D. The slide design

30 In a Group Discussion, a 'Gatekeeper' is someone who:

A. Locks the door
B. Only agrees with the leader
C. Stops the discussion early
D. Ensures everyone gets a chance to speak

31 What is the best way to handle a question you do not know the answer to during a presentation?

A. Make up an answer
B. Admit you don't know but offer to find out later
C. Ignore the questioner
D. Tell the questioner they are wrong

32 Which attire is generally considered appropriate for a corporate job interview?

A. Shorts and T-shirt
B. Gym clothes
C. Business formal (suit/tie/blazer)
D. Party wear

33 What is a 'Fishbowl' activity in communication skills training?

A. Drinking water during speech
B. Looking at actual fish
C. A silent meditation technique
D. A speaking exercise where a small group discusses while an outer group observes

34 Before an event, creating a detailed agenda helps to:

A. Increase the cost of the event
B. Confuse the guests
C. Reduce the number of speakers
D. Ensure effective time management and flow

35 The handshake is a form of Haptics. A proper professional handshake should be:

A. With both hands holding the other person's arm
B. Weak and limp (Dead Fish)
C. Extremely painful and crushing (Bone Crusher)
D. Firm, brief, and with eye contact

36 Why is recording oneself a good public speaking exercise?

A. To become a movie star
B. To send to friends for fun
C. To self-evaluate posture, voice, and fillers
D. It is not a good exercise

37 In a Group Discussion, quality of content matters more than:

A. Relevance to the topic
B. Quantity of words spoken
C. Logical reasoning
D. Effective communication

38 When asking for feedback, asking 'How did I do?' is often too vague. A better question would be:

A. What is one specific thing I can improve for next time?
B. Did you like me?
C. Was I terrible?
D. Why didn't you clap louder?

39 Effective posture on stage includes:

A. Swaying back and forth
B. Standing tall with weight evenly distributed
C. Slouching
D. Leaning heavily on the podium

40 Which of the following is a common filler word that should be minimized?

A. Therefore
B. However
C. Um/Uh
D. Consequently

41 During an interview, if asked about your weaknesses, you should:

A. Refuse to answer
B. Say you have no weaknesses
C. List a weakness that disqualifies you for the job
D. Mention a genuine weakness and how you are working to overcome it

42 In event organization, what is a contingency plan?

A. A plan for VIPs only
B. A plan for food only
C. A backup plan for when things go wrong
D. The main plan

43 Using humor in a presentation is:

A. Effective if relevant and appropriate
B. Required in every slide
C. Always forbidden
D. Only for professional comedians

44 Which aspect of voice involves the clarity of speech sounds?

A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Speed
D. Diction/Enunciation

45 In a Group Discussion, sitting with a slouched back implies:

A. Lack of interest or lethargy
B. Readiness to speak
C. High interest
D. Dominance

46 What is the purpose of mirror practice?

A. To observe facial expressions and gestures while speaking
B. To practice silence
C. To fix your hair
D. To increase narcissism

47 When organizing a seminar, checking the AV (Audio-Visual) equipment should happen:

A. After the event starts
B. Well before the event starts
C. Only if something breaks
D. During the break

48 A Just-A-Minute (JAM) session is a type of:

A. Interview
B. Group Discussion
C. Written exam
D. Impromptu speaking exercise

49 Which of these is a psychological barrier to public speaking?

A. Poor lighting
B. Noisy audience
C. Broken microphone
D. Self-doubt and fear of judgment

50 In an interview, researching the company beforehand demonstrates:

A. Proactivity and genuine interest in the role
B. That you are a spy
C. Nothing important
D. That you have too much free time