1
What is the primary characteristic of an impromptu presentation?
A. It is rehearsed for several days
B. It requires a complete slide deck
C. It is delivered with little to no preparation
D. It is always longer than 20 minutes
Correct Answer: It is delivered with little to no preparation
Explanation: Impromptu presentations are spontaneous talks delivered without prior preparation or rehearsals.
2
In the context of micro-presentations, what is the ideal structure to follow?
A. Conclusion - Body - Introduction
B. Introduction - Body - Conclusion
C. Body - Introduction - Conclusion
D. Introduction - Conclusion - Body
Correct Answer: Introduction - Body - Conclusion
Explanation: Standard presentation structure involves an introduction to set the context, the main body for content, and a conclusion to summarize.
3
Which of the following is a key element of grooming for a professional presentation?
A. Wearing distracting jewelry
B. Having unkempt hair
C. Wearing clean, ironed, and appropriate attire
D. Chewing gum while speaking
Correct Answer: Wearing clean, ironed, and appropriate attire
Explanation: Professional grooming implies neatness, cleanliness, and dressing appropriately for the occasion to establish credibility.
4
What does the 'Sandwich Method' refer to in the context of feedback?
A. Eating before giving feedback
B. Placing negative feedback between two layers of positive feedback
C. Giving feedback only during lunch breaks
D. Listing only negative points rapidly
Correct Answer: Placing negative feedback between two layers of positive feedback
Explanation: The Sandwich Method involves starting with praise, addressing areas for improvement (criticism), and ending with encouraging words.
5
In non-verbal communication, what does crossed arms typically signify?
A. Openness and acceptance
B. Defensiveness or resistance
C. Excitement and joy
D. Deep relaxation
Correct Answer: Defensiveness or resistance
Explanation: Crossing arms is often interpreted as a defensive or closed-off posture, suggesting the listener is not open to the message.
6
Which term describes the variation in the pitch of the voice to convey meaning and emotion?
A. Articulation
B. Pronunciation
C. Voice Modulation
D. Vocabulary
Correct Answer: Voice Modulation
Explanation: Voice modulation refers to controlling the pitch, tone, and volume of the voice to avoid monotony and express emotion.
7
What is the average conversational rate of speech considered ideal for public speaking?
A. 60 – 80 words per minute
B. 120 – 150 words per minute
C. 200 – 250 words per minute
D. 300+ words per minute
Correct Answer: 120 – 150 words per minute
Explanation: A rate of 120–150 words per minute is generally considered clear and comprehensible for most audiences.
8
In a Group Discussion (GD), what is the primary role of the initiator?
A. To stay silent until the end
B. To start the discussion by defining the topic and setting the context
C. To criticize everyone's points immediately
D. To conclude the discussion instantly
Correct Answer: To start the discussion by defining the topic and setting the context
Explanation: The initiator breaks the ice, introduces the topic, and sets the direction for the group discussion.
9
What is Glossophobia?
A. Fear of open spaces
B. Fear of writing
C. Fear of public speaking
D. Fear of listening
Correct Answer: Fear of public speaking
Explanation: Glossophobia is the technical term for the anxiety or fear associated with speaking in public.
10
Which technique is recommended to answer behavioral interview questions?
A. The YES/NO method
B. The STAR method
C. The RANDOM method
D. The SILENCE method
Correct Answer: The STAR method
Explanation: The STAR method (Situation, Task, Action, Result) is a structured manner of responding to behavioral interview questions.
11
When organizing an event, who is primarily responsible for steering the flow of the program on stage?
A. The caterer
B. The technician
C. The Master of Ceremonies (MC)
D. The security guard
Correct Answer: The Master of Ceremonies (MC)
Explanation: The MC acts as the host, introducing speakers, transitioning between segments, and keeping the event moving smoothly.
12
Which of the following is a sign of active listening during a Group Discussion?
A. Checking your phone
B. Nodding and maintaining eye contact
C. Interrupting the speaker repeatedly
D. Planning your lunch while others speak
Correct Answer: Nodding and maintaining eye contact
Explanation: Nodding and eye contact are non-verbal cues that indicate you are paying attention and engaged with the speaker.
13
In the context of voice, what does 'monotone' mean?
A. Speaking with high energy
B. Speaking at a single, unvaried pitch
C. Speaking very loudly
D. Speaking very fast
Correct Answer: Speaking at a single, unvaried pitch
Explanation: A monotone voice lacks variation in pitch and intonation, often making the speech sound boring or robotic.
14
What is the purpose of a 'Vote of Thanks' in event organization?
A. To critique the speakers
B. To list the budget of the event
C. To formally express gratitude to organizers, guests, and attendees
D. To restart the event from the beginning
Correct Answer: To formally express gratitude to organizers, guests, and attendees
Explanation: A Vote of Thanks is a formal speech at the end of an event to thank everyone who contributed to its success.
15
During a presentation, how should one handle nervousness?
A. Apologize profusely for being nervous
B. Run off the stage
C. Practice deep breathing and preparation techniques
D. Avoid eye contact with everyone
Correct Answer: Practice deep breathing and preparation techniques
Explanation: Deep breathing calms the nervous system, and thorough preparation reduces anxiety by increasing confidence.
16
What is the 7-38-55 rule of communication by Albert Mehrabian?
A. 7% Body Language, 38% Tone, 55% Words
B. 7% Tone, 38% Words, 55% Body Language
C. 7% Words, 38% Tone, 55% Body Language
D. 7% Words, 38% Body Language, 55% Tone
Correct Answer: 7% Words, 38% Tone, 55% Body Language
Explanation: Mehrabian's rule suggests that in communicating feelings, 7% is verbal (words), 38% is vocal (tone), and 55% is visual (body language).
17
Which gesture is generally considered rude in many cultures during a speech?
A. Open palms
B. Smiling
C. Finger pointing at the audience
D. Stepping forward
Correct Answer: Finger pointing at the audience
Explanation: Pointing a finger directly at the audience can be perceived as aggressive, accusatory, or authoritarian.
18
In an interview, what is the best way to answer: 'Tell me about yourself'?
A. Recite your entire life history from childhood
B. Summarize your professional background, skills, and current goals
C. Talk about your hobbies and family only
D. Refuse to answer as it is personal
Correct Answer: Summarize your professional background, skills, and current goals
Explanation: This question seeks a professional elevator pitch focusing on qualifications and relevance to the job, not a personal biography.
19
What is the function of pausing during a speech?
A. To show you forgot your lines
B. To emphasize a point or let information sink in
C. To waste time
D. To distract the audience
Correct Answer: To emphasize a point or let information sink in
Explanation: Strategic pauses allow the audience to digest complex information and can add dramatic effect to key points.
20
In a Group Discussion, if two participants are arguing aggressively, what should you do?
A. Join the argument and shout louder
B. Ignore them and look at the ceiling
C. Politely intervene to mediate and bring the group back to the topic
D. Leave the room
Correct Answer: Politely intervene to mediate and bring the group back to the topic
Explanation: Mediation demonstrates leadership and conflict resolution skills, which are highly valued in GD assessments.
21
Which of the following is an example of poor stage manners?
A. Turning your back to the audience to read slides
B. Smiling at the audience
C. Standing upright
D. Holding the microphone correctly
Correct Answer: Turning your back to the audience to read slides
Explanation: Turning your back breaks the connection with the audience and suggests a lack of preparation or reliance on reading rather than speaking.
22
What is 'Proxemics' in the context of body language?
A. Study of eye contact
B. Study of touch
C. Study of spatial separation (personal space)
D. Study of time
Correct Answer: Study of spatial separation (personal space)
Explanation: Proxemics is the study of how people use space and distance during communication and its effects on social interaction.
23
When using visual aids in a micro-presentation, the text on slides should be:
A. Long paragraphs
B. Very small font
C. Bullet points and concise
D. Entirely in capital letters
Correct Answer: Bullet points and concise
Explanation: Slides are for support, not a script. Bullet points allow the audience to scan quickly while listening to the speaker.
24
What does the 'S' in the STAR interview technique stand for?
A. Strategy
B. Situation
C. Strength
D. Summary
Correct Answer: Situation
Explanation: In the STAR method, 'S' stands for Situation (setting the scene and giving the necessary details of your example).
25
Which exercise helps improve articulation and pronunciation?
A. Running
B. Tongue twisters
C. Silent reading
D. Meditation
Correct Answer: Tongue twisters
Explanation: Tongue twisters force the mouth muscles to work hard to distinguish similar sounds, thereby improving clarity and articulation.
26
In an impromptu speech, what is the PREP method?
A. Point, Reason, Example, Point
B. Prepare, Read, Edit, Present
C. Pause, Review, Eat, Play
D. Plan, Rehearse, Evaluate, Post
Correct Answer: Point, Reason, Example, Point
Explanation: PREP stands for stating your Point, giving a Reason, providing an Example, and restating the Point.
27
What is the significance of eye contact during a presentation?
A. It intimidates the audience
B. It establishes a connection and builds trust
C. It helps you read your notes better
D. It is not necessary
Correct Answer: It establishes a connection and builds trust
Explanation: Eye contact engages the audience, makes them feel addressed individually, and conveys confidence and sincerity.
28
When receiving feedback, one should avoid:
A. Listening carefully
B. Asking for clarification
C. Becoming defensive and making excuses
D. Taking notes
Correct Answer: Becoming defensive and making excuses
Explanation: Defensiveness blocks growth. Feedback should be accepted gracefully as an opportunity to improve.
29
Which of the following is a paralinguistic feature?
A. The words used
B. The grammar
C. The volume and tone of voice
D. The slide design
Correct Answer: The volume and tone of voice
Explanation: Paralanguage refers to the non-lexical component of communication by speech, such as intonation, pitch, and speed.
30
In a Group Discussion, a 'Gatekeeper' is someone who:
A. Locks the door
B. Ensures everyone gets a chance to speak
C. Stops the discussion early
D. Only agrees with the leader
Correct Answer: Ensures everyone gets a chance to speak
Explanation: A Gatekeeper in group dynamics manages participation, encouraging quiet members to speak and restraining dominators.
31
What is the best way to handle a question you do not know the answer to during a presentation?
A. Make up an answer
B. Ignore the questioner
C. Admit you don't know but offer to find out later
D. Tell the questioner they are wrong
Correct Answer: Admit you don't know but offer to find out later
Explanation: Honesty preserves credibility. Bluffs are easily detected and damage trust.
32
Which attire is generally considered appropriate for a corporate job interview?
A. Shorts and T-shirt
B. Business formal (suit/tie/blazer)
C. Party wear
D. Gym clothes
Correct Answer: Business formal (suit/tie/blazer)
Explanation: Business formal is the standard for corporate interviews to show respect and professionalism.
33
What is a 'Fishbowl' activity in communication skills training?
A. Looking at actual fish
B. A speaking exercise where a small group discusses while an outer group observes
C. Drinking water during speech
D. A silent meditation technique
Correct Answer: A speaking exercise where a small group discusses while an outer group observes
Explanation: The Fishbowl technique involves an inner circle discussing a topic and an outer circle observing and taking notes on the interaction.
34
Before an event, creating a detailed agenda helps to:
A. Confuse the guests
B. Ensure effective time management and flow
C. Increase the cost of the event
D. Reduce the number of speakers
Correct Answer: Ensure effective time management and flow
Explanation: An agenda provides a roadmap for the event, ensuring all activities fit within the allotted time and occur in logical order.
35
The handshake is a form of Haptics. A proper professional handshake should be:
A. Weak and limp (Dead Fish)
B. Extremely painful and crushing (Bone Crusher)
C. Firm, brief, and with eye contact
D. With both hands holding the other person's arm
Correct Answer: Firm, brief, and with eye contact
Explanation: A firm (but not crushing) handshake conveys confidence and professional respect.
36
Why is recording oneself a good public speaking exercise?
A. To become a movie star
B. To self-evaluate posture, voice, and fillers
C. To send to friends for fun
D. It is not a good exercise
Correct Answer: To self-evaluate posture, voice, and fillers
Explanation: Watching a recording reveals subconscious habits like fidgeting or saying 'um/ah' that one might not notice in real-time.
37
In a Group Discussion, quality of content matters more than:
A. Logical reasoning
B. Relevance to the topic
C. Quantity of words spoken
D. Effective communication
Correct Answer: Quantity of words spoken
Explanation: Speaking a lot without substance is less effective than making fewer, high-quality, relevant contributions.
38
When asking for feedback, asking 'How did I do?' is often too vague. A better question would be:
A. Did you like me?
B. Was I terrible?
C. What is one specific thing I can improve for next time?
D. Why didn't you clap louder?
Correct Answer: What is one specific thing I can improve for next time?
Explanation: Specific questions yield actionable feedback rather than general politeness.
39
Effective posture on stage includes:
A. Slouching
B. Leaning heavily on the podium
C. Standing tall with weight evenly distributed
D. Swaying back and forth
Correct Answer: Standing tall with weight evenly distributed
Explanation: A balanced, upright posture projects authority and energy.
40
Which of the following is a common filler word that should be minimized?
A. Therefore
B. However
C. Um/Uh
D. Consequently
Correct Answer: Um/Uh
Explanation: Fillers like 'um', 'uh', and 'like' distract from the message and can make the speaker sound uncertain.
41
During an interview, if asked about your weaknesses, you should:
A. Say you have no weaknesses
B. Mention a genuine weakness and how you are working to overcome it
C. List a weakness that disqualifies you for the job
D. Refuse to answer
Correct Answer: Mention a genuine weakness and how you are working to overcome it
Explanation: This shows self-awareness and a growth mindset. Claiming perfection is arrogant or dishonest.
42
In event organization, what is a contingency plan?
A. The main plan
B. A plan for food only
C. A backup plan for when things go wrong
D. A plan for VIPs only
Correct Answer: A backup plan for when things go wrong
Explanation: Contingency plans address potential risks (e.g., technical failure, rain) to ensure the event continues despite issues.
43
Using humor in a presentation is:
A. Always forbidden
B. Effective if relevant and appropriate
C. Only for professional comedians
D. Required in every slide
Correct Answer: Effective if relevant and appropriate
Explanation: Humor can build rapport and keep attention, but it must be suitable for the audience and topic.
44
Which aspect of voice involves the clarity of speech sounds?
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Diction/Enunciation
D. Speed
Correct Answer: Diction/Enunciation
Explanation: Diction or enunciation refers to the distinctness and clarity with which words are pronounced.
45
In a Group Discussion, sitting with a slouched back implies:
A. High interest
B. Lack of interest or lethargy
C. Dominance
D. Readiness to speak
Correct Answer: Lack of interest or lethargy
Explanation: Slouching is a negative body language signal indicating boredom or lack of engagement.
46
What is the purpose of mirror practice?
A. To fix your hair
B. To observe facial expressions and gestures while speaking
C. To increase narcissism
D. To practice silence
Correct Answer: To observe facial expressions and gestures while speaking
Explanation: Practicing in front of a mirror provides immediate visual feedback on body language and facial expressions.
47
When organizing a seminar, checking the AV (Audio-Visual) equipment should happen:
A. After the event starts
B. Well before the event starts
C. During the break
D. Only if something breaks
Correct Answer: Well before the event starts
Explanation: Technical checks are crucial pre-event tasks to prevent embarrassing interruptions during the presentation.
48
A Just-A-Minute (JAM) session is a type of:
A. Group Discussion
B. Impromptu speaking exercise
C. Interview
D. Written exam
Correct Answer: Impromptu speaking exercise
Explanation: JAM requires a speaker to talk on a topic for one minute without hesitation, repetition, or deviation.
49
Which of these is a psychological barrier to public speaking?
A. Broken microphone
B. Noisy audience
C. Self-doubt and fear of judgment
D. Poor lighting
Correct Answer: Self-doubt and fear of judgment
Explanation: Internal negative thoughts constitute psychological barriers that hinder performance.
50
In an interview, researching the company beforehand demonstrates:
A. That you have too much free time
B. Proactivity and genuine interest in the role
C. That you are a spy
D. Nothing important
Correct Answer: Proactivity and genuine interest in the role
Explanation: Knowledge about the company sets candidates apart, showing they are serious about the opportunity.