Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

PSY291 50 Questions
0 Correct 0 Wrong 50 Left
0/50

1 Which of the following best defines cognitive dysfunction?

A. A deficit in intellectual and mental processes such as memory, attention, and executive function
B. A temporary emotional disturbance caused by stress
C. A personality disorder characterized by unstable moods
D. A physical inability to control voluntary muscle movements due to spinal cord injury

2 In the context of cognitive dysfunction, what does the term agnosia refer to?

A. Inability to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function
B. Inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function
C. Inability to articulate speech
D. Loss of long-term memory

3 Which cognitive domain is primarily assessed by the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)?

A. Visuospatial construction skills
B. Executive function, specifically set-shifting and abstract reasoning
C. Long-term semantic memory
D. Auditory processing speed

4 Which of the following is considered a screening tool rather than a comprehensive neuropsychological battery?

A. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
B. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV)
C. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery
D. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)

5 What is the maximum possible score on the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?

A. 30
B. 100
C. 20
D. 50

6 Which condition is characterized by an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness, often reversible?

A. Alzheimer's Disease
B. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
C. Vascular Dementia
D. Delirium

7 The Stroop Color and Word Test is primarily used to assess which cognitive process?

A. Phonological loop
B. Cognitive inhibition and selective attention
C. Motor dexterity
D. Visuospatial memory

8 In the assessment of cognitive dysfunction, what does 'premorbid functioning' refer to?

A. The genetic predisposition to neurological disorders
B. The predicted decline in cognitive function over the next 5 years
C. The current level of cognitive functioning during a psychotic episode
D. The level of cognitive ability a patient had before the onset of injury or illness

9 Which of the following is a key ethical consideration when testing an individual with severe dementia?

A. Refusing to share results with the family to maintain total secrecy
B. Using only tests designed for children
C. Obtaining informed consent, often involving a legal proxy or guardian
D. Ensuring the test takes at least 4 hours to be thorough

10 Which test requires a patient to connect numbered circles in a sequence (Part A) and alternate between numbers and letters (Part B)?

A. Digit Span Test
B. Trail Making Test
C. Tower of London
D. Boston Naming Test

11 The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) is generally considered more sensitive than the MMSE for detecting:

A. Profound Intellectual Disability
B. Severe Alzheimer's Disease
C. Acute Coma
D. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)

12 Which type of cognitive dysfunction is primarily associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency?

A. Pick's Disease
B. Korsakoff's Syndrome
C. Huntington's Disease
D. Lewy Body Dementia

13 What is apraxia?

A. A visual field cut
B. A loss of motivation
C. A deficit in motor planning and executing learned purposeful movements
D. A language disorder affecting grammar

14 The Bender-Gestalt II is widely used to assess:

A. Verbal fluency and vocabulary
B. Visual-motor integration and visual perception
C. Auditory attention span
D. Logical deduction

15 Which statistical concept is crucial when determining if a patient's score on a cognitive test represents a significant deficit?

A. The raw score only
B. The mode of the population
C. The correlation coefficient between two different tests
D. Standard deviation and Z-scores relative to normative data

16 Which part of the brain is most associated with the deficits measured by the Tower of London test?

A. Temporal Lobe
B. Occipital Lobe
C. Cerebellum
D. Prefrontal Cortex

17 The Boston Naming Test is specifically designed to assess:

A. Writing speed
B. Reading comprehension
C. Confrontation naming and word-retrieval abilities
D. Sentence construction

18 What is the primary characteristic of Vascular Dementia?

A. Early onset personality changes and loss of social inhibition
B. Choreiform movements and psychosis
C. Step-wise decline in cognitive function related to cerebrovascular events (strokes)
D. Slow, insidious onset with primary memory loss

19 Which of the following describes ecological validity in the context of cognitive testing?

A. The extent to which test results predict real-world functioning
B. The correlation between the test and MRI findings
C. The statistical reliability of the test across different cultures
D. The use of environmentally friendly testing materials

20 The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is notable for:

A. Being a quick 10-minute screen
B. Testing emotional intelligence exclusively
C. Being a fixed battery used to detect brain damage and lateralization of defects
D. Its heavy reliance on qualitative observation only

21 In the assessment of memory, anterograde amnesia refers to:

A. Inability to form new memories after the injury
B. Loss of memories formed before the injury
C. A temporary memory loss due to fatigue
D. Loss of procedural memory only

22 What is a Symptom Validity Test (SVT) used for in cognitive assessment?

A. To diagnose schizophrenia
B. To detect malingering or insufficient effort
C. To measure the severity of a stroke
D. To validate the credentials of the psychologist

23 Which subtest of the WAIS-IV measures Working Memory?

A. Digit Span
B. Block Design
C. Symbol Search
D. Matrix Reasoning

24 The Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test assesses which combination of skills?

A. Auditory discrimination and pitch
B. Visuospatial construction and non-verbal memory
C. Social cognition and empathy
D. Verbal memory and language

25 Which of the following causes of cognitive dysfunction is typically considered degenerative?

A. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
B. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
C. Alzheimer's Disease
D. Viral Encephalitis

26 When assessing a patient from a different cultural background, a psychologist must be wary of cultural bias. This refers to:

A. The lack of translation services
B. The test being too short
C. The test items measuring cultural knowledge rather than cognitive ability
D. The patient disliking the psychologist

27 Which of the following is a symptom of Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)?

A. Severe tremors
B. Visual hallucinations early in the disease
C. Early loss of episodic memory
D. Significant changes in personality, behavior, and language

28 What is confabulation?

A. Refusal to speak
B. Repeating words spoken by others
C. The production of fabricated, distorted, or misinterpreted memories without the conscious intention to deceive
D. Deliberate lying to hide a crime

29 The Clock Drawing Test is a simple tool used to screen for:

A. Color blindness
B. Visuospatial and executive dysfunction
C. Hearing loss
D. Reading speed

30 Which of the following is an application of cognitive assessment in a legal setting?

A. Assessing competency to stand trial
B. Determining the correct medication dosage
C. Measuring physical strength
D. Identifying suitable hobbies for the patient

31 Which neurotransmitter is most significantly depleted in Alzheimer's Disease, leading to the use of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A. GABA
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine

32 The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery differs from the Halstead-Reitan in that it:

A. Is only for children
B. Is flexible and allows for qualitative analysis alongside quantitative scoring
C. Is much longer to administer
D. Does not measure motor skills

33 What is the phenomenon called when a patient with a disability is unaware of their own deficits?

A. Anosognosia
B. Prosopagnosia
C. Aphasia
D. Alexia

34 In the context of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI), a coup-contrecoup injury refers to:

A. Injury to the spinal cord only
B. A purely chemical injury
C. A penetrating injury from a bullet
D. Injury at the site of impact and on the opposite side of the brain due to rebound

35 Which assessment focuses on the speed of information processing and visual scanning?

A. Hooper Visual Organization Test
B. Symbol Digit Modalities Test (SDMT)
C. Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination
D. California Verbal Learning Test

36 Pseudo-dementia refers to cognitive deficits caused by:

A. Stroke
B. Severe Depression
C. Brain Tumor
D. Meningitis

37 When providing feedback on cognitive tests to a patient with mild impairment, an ethical psychologist should:

A. Lie about the results to prevent patient anxiety
B. Provide the feedback in clear, understandable language and discuss implications
C. Use complex medical jargon to maintain professionalism
D. Mail the results without explanation to save time

38 The Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV) typically includes indices for:

A. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
B. Auditory Memory, Visual Memory, Visual Working Memory
C. Kinesthetic processing
D. Emotional Stability and Agreeableness

39 Which of the following is an example of a Verbal Fluency task?

A. Naming as many animals as possible in one minute
B. Reading a paragraph aloud
C. Reciting the alphabet backwards
D. Defining the word 'Procrastinate'

40 Which area of the brain is primarily assessed by tasks requiring the patient to distinguish between right and left, and calculate simple math problems?

A. Right Temporal Lobe
B. Brainstem
C. Left Parietal Lobe
D. Frontal Lobe

41 In cognitive testing, crystallized intelligence refers to:

A. Accumulated knowledge and verbal skills
B. The ability to solve novel problems
C. Processing speed
D. Short-term memory capacity

42 If a patient scores on a memory test, what percentile range does this roughly correspond to?

A. Extremely Low (< 1st percentile)
B. Average (50th percentile)
C. Low Average (16th percentile)
D. High Average (84th percentile)

43 The Rivermead Behavioural Memory Test is designed to:

A. Measure IQ
B. Predict everyday memory problems
C. Assess unconscious desires
D. Test reflex speed

44 A specific learning disability affecting reading accuracy, fluency, and comprehension is known as:

A. Dyscalculia
B. Dyslexia
C. Dyspraxia
D. Dysgraphia

45 When assessing an elderly patient, the practice effect refers to:

A. Improvement in test scores due to prior exposure to the test
B. The anxiety caused by the testing environment
C. The benefit of practicing relaxation techniques
D. The decline in scores due to fatigue

46 Which of the following describes Broca's Aphasia?

A. Fluent speech that lacks meaning (word salad)
B. Non-fluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension
C. Inability to write
D. Total loss of ability to understand language

47 The Glaser Coma Scale (GCS) is used to:

A. Measure intelligence in comatose patients
B. Assess the level of consciousness after acute brain injury
C. Assess long-term memory
D. Diagnose depression

48 In rehabilitation planning, cognitive assessment helps to:

A. Prescribe psychiatric medication
B. Identify spared cognitive strengths to compensate for deficits
C. Determine if the patient should be institutionalized immediately
D. Diagnose physical broken bones

49 What is the primary cognitive deficit in Huntington's Disease?

A. Rapid memory loss
B. Psychomotor slowing and executive dysfunction
C. Visual agnosia
D. Aphasia

50 The Continuous Performance Test (CPT) is most often used to assist in the diagnosis of:

A. Dyslexia
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder)
D. Anxiety