Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

PSY291 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following best defines cognitive dysfunction?

A. A personality disorder characterized by unstable moods
B. A temporary emotional disturbance caused by stress
C. A physical inability to control voluntary muscle movements due to spinal cord injury
D. A deficit in intellectual and mental processes such as memory, attention, and executive function

2 In the context of cognitive dysfunction, what does the term agnosia refer to?

A. Loss of long-term memory
B. Inability to articulate speech
C. Inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function
D. Inability to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function

3 Which cognitive domain is primarily assessed by the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)?

A. Long-term semantic memory
B. Visuospatial construction skills
C. Executive function, specifically set-shifting and abstract reasoning
D. Auditory processing speed

4 Which of the following is considered a screening tool rather than a comprehensive neuropsychological battery?

A. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV)
B. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
C. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
D. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery

5 What is the maximum possible score on the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?

A. 100
B. 50
C. 20
D. 30

6 Which condition is characterized by an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness, often reversible?

A. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
B. Vascular Dementia
C. Alzheimer's Disease
D. Delirium

7 The Stroop Color and Word Test is primarily used to assess which cognitive process?

A. Visuospatial memory
B. Cognitive inhibition and selective attention
C. Motor dexterity
D. Phonological loop

8 In the assessment of cognitive dysfunction, what does 'premorbid functioning' refer to?

A. The genetic predisposition to neurological disorders
B. The predicted decline in cognitive function over the next 5 years
C. The level of cognitive ability a patient had before the onset of injury or illness
D. The current level of cognitive functioning during a psychotic episode

9 Which of the following is a key ethical consideration when testing an individual with severe dementia?

A. Refusing to share results with the family to maintain total secrecy
B. Ensuring the test takes at least 4 hours to be thorough
C. Using only tests designed for children
D. Obtaining informed consent, often involving a legal proxy or guardian

10 Which test requires a patient to connect numbered circles in a sequence (Part A) and alternate between numbers and letters (Part B)?

A. Boston Naming Test
B. Trail Making Test
C. Digit Span Test
D. Tower of London

11 The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) is generally considered more sensitive than the MMSE for detecting:

A. Severe Alzheimer's Disease
B. Acute Coma
C. Profound Intellectual Disability
D. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)

12 Which type of cognitive dysfunction is primarily associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency?

A. Lewy Body Dementia
B. Korsakoff's Syndrome
C. Huntington's Disease
D. Pick's Disease

13 What is apraxia?

A. A language disorder affecting grammar
B. A visual field cut
C. A deficit in motor planning and executing learned purposeful movements
D. A loss of motivation

14 The Bender-Gestalt II is widely used to assess:

A. Logical deduction
B. Verbal fluency and vocabulary
C. Visual-motor integration and visual perception
D. Auditory attention span

15 Which statistical concept is crucial when determining if a patient's score on a cognitive test represents a significant deficit?

A. The mode of the population
B. The raw score only
C. The correlation coefficient between two different tests
D. Standard deviation and Z-scores relative to normative data

16 Which part of the brain is most associated with the deficits measured by the Tower of London test?

A. Cerebellum
B. Temporal Lobe
C. Prefrontal Cortex
D. Occipital Lobe

17 The Boston Naming Test is specifically designed to assess:

A. Reading comprehension
B. Sentence construction
C. Writing speed
D. Confrontation naming and word-retrieval abilities

18 What is the primary characteristic of Vascular Dementia?

A. Early onset personality changes and loss of social inhibition
B. Choreiform movements and psychosis
C. Slow, insidious onset with primary memory loss
D. Step-wise decline in cognitive function related to cerebrovascular events (strokes)

19 Which of the following describes ecological validity in the context of cognitive testing?

A. The use of environmentally friendly testing materials
B. The correlation between the test and MRI findings
C. The extent to which test results predict real-world functioning
D. The statistical reliability of the test across different cultures

20 The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is notable for:

A. Its heavy reliance on qualitative observation only
B. Being a fixed battery used to detect brain damage and lateralization of defects
C. Being a quick 10-minute screen
D. Testing emotional intelligence exclusively

21 In the assessment of memory, anterograde amnesia refers to:

A. A temporary memory loss due to fatigue
B. Inability to form new memories after the injury
C. Loss of procedural memory only
D. Loss of memories formed before the injury

22 What is a Symptom Validity Test (SVT) used for in cognitive assessment?

A. To validate the credentials of the psychologist
B. To detect malingering or insufficient effort
C. To measure the severity of a stroke
D. To diagnose schizophrenia

23 Which subtest of the WAIS-IV measures Working Memory?

A. Matrix Reasoning
B. Symbol Search
C. Block Design
D. Digit Span

24 The Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test assesses which combination of skills?

A. Auditory discrimination and pitch
B. Visuospatial construction and non-verbal memory
C. Social cognition and empathy
D. Verbal memory and language

25 Which of the following causes of cognitive dysfunction is typically considered degenerative?

A. Viral Encephalitis
B. Alzheimer's Disease
C. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
D. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

26 When assessing a patient from a different cultural background, a psychologist must be wary of cultural bias. This refers to:

A. The lack of translation services
B. The test items measuring cultural knowledge rather than cognitive ability
C. The test being too short
D. The patient disliking the psychologist

27 Which of the following is a symptom of Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)?

A. Visual hallucinations early in the disease
B. Significant changes in personality, behavior, and language
C. Severe tremors
D. Early loss of episodic memory

28 What is confabulation?

A. Deliberate lying to hide a crime
B. Repeating words spoken by others
C. The production of fabricated, distorted, or misinterpreted memories without the conscious intention to deceive
D. Refusal to speak

29 The Clock Drawing Test is a simple tool used to screen for:

A. Visuospatial and executive dysfunction
B. Color blindness
C. Hearing loss
D. Reading speed

30 Which of the following is an application of cognitive assessment in a legal setting?

A. Assessing competency to stand trial
B. Measuring physical strength
C. Determining the correct medication dosage
D. Identifying suitable hobbies for the patient

31 Which neurotransmitter is most significantly depleted in Alzheimer's Disease, leading to the use of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA

32 The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery differs from the Halstead-Reitan in that it:

A. Is much longer to administer
B. Does not measure motor skills
C. Is only for children
D. Is flexible and allows for qualitative analysis alongside quantitative scoring

33 What is the phenomenon called when a patient with a disability is unaware of their own deficits?

A. Anosognosia
B. Alexia
C. Aphasia
D. Prosopagnosia

34 In the context of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI), a coup-contrecoup injury refers to:

A. A purely chemical injury
B. Injury at the site of impact and on the opposite side of the brain due to rebound
C. Injury to the spinal cord only
D. A penetrating injury from a bullet

35 Which assessment focuses on the speed of information processing and visual scanning?

A. Symbol Digit Modalities Test (SDMT)
B. Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination
C. California Verbal Learning Test
D. Hooper Visual Organization Test

36 Pseudo-dementia refers to cognitive deficits caused by:

A. Severe Depression
B. Stroke
C. Meningitis
D. Brain Tumor

37 When providing feedback on cognitive tests to a patient with mild impairment, an ethical psychologist should:

A. Provide the feedback in clear, understandable language and discuss implications
B. Mail the results without explanation to save time
C. Use complex medical jargon to maintain professionalism
D. Lie about the results to prevent patient anxiety

38 The Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV) typically includes indices for:

A. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
B. Auditory Memory, Visual Memory, Visual Working Memory
C. Kinesthetic processing
D. Emotional Stability and Agreeableness

39 Which of the following is an example of a Verbal Fluency task?

A. Defining the word 'Procrastinate'
B. Naming as many animals as possible in one minute
C. Reading a paragraph aloud
D. Reciting the alphabet backwards

40 Which area of the brain is primarily assessed by tasks requiring the patient to distinguish between right and left, and calculate simple math problems?

A. Brainstem
B. Frontal Lobe
C. Right Temporal Lobe
D. Left Parietal Lobe

41 In cognitive testing, crystallized intelligence refers to:

A. Processing speed
B. The ability to solve novel problems
C. Short-term memory capacity
D. Accumulated knowledge and verbal skills

42 If a patient scores on a memory test, what percentile range does this roughly correspond to?

A. Low Average (16th percentile)
B. High Average (84th percentile)
C. Extremely Low (< 1st percentile)
D. Average (50th percentile)

43 The Rivermead Behavioural Memory Test is designed to:

A. Measure IQ
B. Assess unconscious desires
C. Predict everyday memory problems
D. Test reflex speed

44 A specific learning disability affecting reading accuracy, fluency, and comprehension is known as:

A. Dysgraphia
B. Dyscalculia
C. Dyspraxia
D. Dyslexia

45 When assessing an elderly patient, the practice effect refers to:

A. Improvement in test scores due to prior exposure to the test
B. The benefit of practicing relaxation techniques
C. The decline in scores due to fatigue
D. The anxiety caused by the testing environment

46 Which of the following describes Broca's Aphasia?

A. Total loss of ability to understand language
B. Fluent speech that lacks meaning (word salad)
C. Inability to write
D. Non-fluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension

47 The Glaser Coma Scale (GCS) is used to:

A. Measure intelligence in comatose patients
B. Assess long-term memory
C. Assess the level of consciousness after acute brain injury
D. Diagnose depression

48 In rehabilitation planning, cognitive assessment helps to:

A. Determine if the patient should be institutionalized immediately
B. Prescribe psychiatric medication
C. Identify spared cognitive strengths to compensate for deficits
D. Diagnose physical broken bones

49 What is the primary cognitive deficit in Huntington's Disease?

A. Visual agnosia
B. Aphasia
C. Psychomotor slowing and executive dysfunction
D. Rapid memory loss

50 The Continuous Performance Test (CPT) is most often used to assist in the diagnosis of:

A. Anxiety
B. ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder)
C. Dyslexia
D. Bipolar Disorder