Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

PSY291 50 Questions
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1 Which of the following best defines cognitive dysfunction?

A. A temporary emotional disturbance caused by stress
B. A deficit in intellectual and mental processes such as memory, attention, and executive function
C. A physical inability to control voluntary muscle movements due to spinal cord injury
D. A personality disorder characterized by unstable moods

2 In the context of cognitive dysfunction, what does the term agnosia refer to?

A. Inability to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function
B. Inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function
C. Loss of long-term memory
D. Inability to articulate speech

3 Which cognitive domain is primarily assessed by the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)?

A. Visuospatial construction skills
B. Long-term semantic memory
C. Executive function, specifically set-shifting and abstract reasoning
D. Auditory processing speed

4 Which of the following is considered a screening tool rather than a comprehensive neuropsychological battery?

A. Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery
B. Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
C. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV)
D. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)

5 What is the maximum possible score on the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)?

A. 50
B. 30
C. 100
D. 20

6 Which condition is characterized by an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness, often reversible?

A. Alzheimer's Disease
B. Vascular Dementia
C. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
D. Delirium

7 The Stroop Color and Word Test is primarily used to assess which cognitive process?

A. Cognitive inhibition and selective attention
B. Motor dexterity
C. Visuospatial memory
D. Phonological loop

8 In the assessment of cognitive dysfunction, what does 'premorbid functioning' refer to?

A. The current level of cognitive functioning during a psychotic episode
B. The genetic predisposition to neurological disorders
C. The predicted decline in cognitive function over the next 5 years
D. The level of cognitive ability a patient had before the onset of injury or illness

9 Which of the following is a key ethical consideration when testing an individual with severe dementia?

A. Obtaining informed consent, often involving a legal proxy or guardian
B. Refusing to share results with the family to maintain total secrecy
C. Ensuring the test takes at least 4 hours to be thorough
D. Using only tests designed for children

10 Which test requires a patient to connect numbered circles in a sequence (Part A) and alternate between numbers and letters (Part B)?

A. Boston Naming Test
B. Digit Span Test
C. Tower of London
D. Trail Making Test

11 The Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) is generally considered more sensitive than the MMSE for detecting:

A. Severe Alzheimer's Disease
B. Profound Intellectual Disability
C. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI)
D. Acute Coma

12 Which type of cognitive dysfunction is primarily associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency?

A. Huntington's Disease
B. Korsakoff's Syndrome
C. Lewy Body Dementia
D. Pick's Disease

13 What is apraxia?

A. A deficit in motor planning and executing learned purposeful movements
B. A language disorder affecting grammar
C. A loss of motivation
D. A visual field cut

14 The Bender-Gestalt II is widely used to assess:

A. Logical deduction
B. Auditory attention span
C. Visual-motor integration and visual perception
D. Verbal fluency and vocabulary

15 Which statistical concept is crucial when determining if a patient's score on a cognitive test represents a significant deficit?

A. The correlation coefficient between two different tests
B. The mode of the population
C. The raw score only
D. Standard deviation and Z-scores relative to normative data

16 Which part of the brain is most associated with the deficits measured by the Tower of London test?

A. Cerebellum
B. Occipital Lobe
C. Prefrontal Cortex
D. Temporal Lobe

17 The Boston Naming Test is specifically designed to assess:

A. Writing speed
B. Reading comprehension
C. Confrontation naming and word-retrieval abilities
D. Sentence construction

18 What is the primary characteristic of Vascular Dementia?

A. Step-wise decline in cognitive function related to cerebrovascular events (strokes)
B. Early onset personality changes and loss of social inhibition
C. Slow, insidious onset with primary memory loss
D. Choreiform movements and psychosis

19 Which of the following describes ecological validity in the context of cognitive testing?

A. The extent to which test results predict real-world functioning
B. The use of environmentally friendly testing materials
C. The statistical reliability of the test across different cultures
D. The correlation between the test and MRI findings

20 The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is notable for:

A. Testing emotional intelligence exclusively
B. Being a fixed battery used to detect brain damage and lateralization of defects
C. Being a quick 10-minute screen
D. Its heavy reliance on qualitative observation only

21 In the assessment of memory, anterograde amnesia refers to:

A. A temporary memory loss due to fatigue
B. Loss of memories formed before the injury
C. Loss of procedural memory only
D. Inability to form new memories after the injury

22 What is a Symptom Validity Test (SVT) used for in cognitive assessment?

A. To validate the credentials of the psychologist
B. To detect malingering or insufficient effort
C. To diagnose schizophrenia
D. To measure the severity of a stroke

23 Which subtest of the WAIS-IV measures Working Memory?

A. Block Design
B. Symbol Search
C. Matrix Reasoning
D. Digit Span

24 The Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test assesses which combination of skills?

A. Social cognition and empathy
B. Auditory discrimination and pitch
C. Verbal memory and language
D. Visuospatial construction and non-verbal memory

25 Which of the following causes of cognitive dysfunction is typically considered degenerative?

A. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
B. Viral Encephalitis
C. Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)
D. Alzheimer's Disease

26 When assessing a patient from a different cultural background, a psychologist must be wary of cultural bias. This refers to:

A. The test items measuring cultural knowledge rather than cognitive ability
B. The test being too short
C. The patient disliking the psychologist
D. The lack of translation services

27 Which of the following is a symptom of Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)?

A. Visual hallucinations early in the disease
B. Severe tremors
C. Early loss of episodic memory
D. Significant changes in personality, behavior, and language

28 What is confabulation?

A. The production of fabricated, distorted, or misinterpreted memories without the conscious intention to deceive
B. Deliberate lying to hide a crime
C. Repeating words spoken by others
D. Refusal to speak

29 The Clock Drawing Test is a simple tool used to screen for:

A. Reading speed
B. Visuospatial and executive dysfunction
C. Hearing loss
D. Color blindness

30 Which of the following is an application of cognitive assessment in a legal setting?

A. Identifying suitable hobbies for the patient
B. Assessing competency to stand trial
C. Measuring physical strength
D. Determining the correct medication dosage

31 Which neurotransmitter is most significantly depleted in Alzheimer's Disease, leading to the use of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A. GABA
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Dopamine

32 The Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery differs from the Halstead-Reitan in that it:

A. Does not measure motor skills
B. Is only for children
C. Is flexible and allows for qualitative analysis alongside quantitative scoring
D. Is much longer to administer

33 What is the phenomenon called when a patient with a disability is unaware of their own deficits?

A. Aphasia
B. Prosopagnosia
C. Anosognosia
D. Alexia

34 In the context of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI), a coup-contrecoup injury refers to:

A. Injury at the site of impact and on the opposite side of the brain due to rebound
B. Injury to the spinal cord only
C. A purely chemical injury
D. A penetrating injury from a bullet

35 Which assessment focuses on the speed of information processing and visual scanning?

A. Hooper Visual Organization Test
B. Symbol Digit Modalities Test (SDMT)
C. California Verbal Learning Test
D. Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination

36 Pseudo-dementia refers to cognitive deficits caused by:

A. Stroke
B. Brain Tumor
C. Severe Depression
D. Meningitis

37 When providing feedback on cognitive tests to a patient with mild impairment, an ethical psychologist should:

A. Mail the results without explanation to save time
B. Use complex medical jargon to maintain professionalism
C. Lie about the results to prevent patient anxiety
D. Provide the feedback in clear, understandable language and discuss implications

38 The Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV) typically includes indices for:

A. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
B. Auditory Memory, Visual Memory, Visual Working Memory
C. Emotional Stability and Agreeableness
D. Kinesthetic processing

39 Which of the following is an example of a Verbal Fluency task?

A. Reciting the alphabet backwards
B. Reading a paragraph aloud
C. Naming as many animals as possible in one minute
D. Defining the word 'Procrastinate'

40 Which area of the brain is primarily assessed by tasks requiring the patient to distinguish between right and left, and calculate simple math problems?

A. Left Parietal Lobe
B. Right Temporal Lobe
C. Brainstem
D. Frontal Lobe

41 In cognitive testing, crystallized intelligence refers to:

A. The ability to solve novel problems
B. Accumulated knowledge and verbal skills
C. Short-term memory capacity
D. Processing speed

42 If a patient scores on a memory test, what percentile range does this roughly correspond to?

A. High Average (84th percentile)
B. Extremely Low (< 1st percentile)
C. Low Average (16th percentile)
D. Average (50th percentile)

43 The Rivermead Behavioural Memory Test is designed to:

A. Predict everyday memory problems
B. Test reflex speed
C. Assess unconscious desires
D. Measure IQ

44 A specific learning disability affecting reading accuracy, fluency, and comprehension is known as:

A. Dyspraxia
B. Dyscalculia
C. Dysgraphia
D. Dyslexia

45 When assessing an elderly patient, the practice effect refers to:

A. Improvement in test scores due to prior exposure to the test
B. The anxiety caused by the testing environment
C. The benefit of practicing relaxation techniques
D. The decline in scores due to fatigue

46 Which of the following describes Broca's Aphasia?

A. Non-fluent, effortful speech with relatively preserved comprehension
B. Total loss of ability to understand language
C. Inability to write
D. Fluent speech that lacks meaning (word salad)

47 The Glaser Coma Scale (GCS) is used to:

A. Measure intelligence in comatose patients
B. Assess the level of consciousness after acute brain injury
C. Diagnose depression
D. Assess long-term memory

48 In rehabilitation planning, cognitive assessment helps to:

A. Determine if the patient should be institutionalized immediately
B. Diagnose physical broken bones
C. Prescribe psychiatric medication
D. Identify spared cognitive strengths to compensate for deficits

49 What is the primary cognitive deficit in Huntington's Disease?

A. Aphasia
B. Psychomotor slowing and executive dysfunction
C. Visual agnosia
D. Rapid memory loss

50 The Continuous Performance Test (CPT) is most often used to assist in the diagnosis of:

A. ADHD (Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder)
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. Dyslexia
D. Anxiety