Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

INT250 50 Questions
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1 Which part of the internet is not indexed by standard search engines and requires specific software, configurations, or authorization to access?

A. Surface Web
B. Dark Web
C. Transparent Web
D. Deep Web

2 What is the primary routing mechanism used by the Tor network to maintain user anonymity?

A. Onion Routing
B. Tomato Routing
C. Garlic Routing
D. Packet Switching

3 Which Top-Level Domain (TLD) is specifically associated with sites hosted on the Tor network?

A. .onion
B. .exe
C. .com
D. .tor

4 In the context of email basics, what does SMTP stand for?

A. Standard Mail Text Protocol
B. Secure Mail Transmission Protocol
C. System Mail Transfer Protocol
D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

5 Which protocol is primarily used by email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server?

A. FTP
B. SNMP
C. IMAP
D. SMTP

6 What is the most critical section of an email for forensic analysis when tracing the origin of a message?

A. The Subject Line
B. The Email Header
C. The Signature Block
D. The Email Body

7 Which specific field in an email header usually reveals the IP address of the sender?

A. Return-Path
B. To
C. From
D. Received

8 What is the term for an email attack where the sender manipulates the address to make it appear as if it came from a trusted source?

A. Email Spiking
B. Email Bombing
C. Email Spoofing
D. Email Sniffing

9 In a phishing investigation, what is 'Typosquatting'?

A. Deleting email logs
B. Encrypting the email body
C. Using all caps in the subject line
D. Registering a domain name extremely similar to a legitimate one

10 Which type of phishing attack specifically targets high-profile executives like CEOs or CFOs?

A. Whaling
B. Spear Phishing
C. Smishing
D. Vishing

11 What is the primary function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A. To act as a web server
B. To encrypt network data
C. To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity
D. To block all network traffic

12 How does an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) differ mainly from an IDS?

A. IPS cannot detect viruses
B. IPS takes active action to stop the threat
C. IPS is slower
D. IPS only logs data

13 Which type of IDS detection method relies on a database of known attack patterns?

A. Signature-based detection
B. Heuristic detection
C. Behavior-based detection
D. Anomaly-based detection

14 What is a 'False Positive' in the context of IDS/IPS?

A. A legitimate activity flagged as malicious
B. A successful virus removal
C. A system crash
D. A malicious attack that is missed

15 What does WAF stand for in web security?

A. Windows Authentication File
B. Wide Area Firewall
C. Web Application Firewall
D. Wireless Access Firewall

16 At which layer of the OSI model does a Web Application Firewall (WAF) primarily operate?

A. Layer 4 (Transport)
B. Layer 7 (Application)
C. Layer 3 (Network)
D. Layer 2 (Data Link)

17 Which attack involves injecting malicious SQL queries into input fields to manipulate a database?

A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C. Buffer Overflow
D. CSRF

18 What type of web attack involves injecting malicious scripts into trusted websites viewed by other users?

A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B. Directory Traversal
C. SQL Injection
D. Brute Force

19 Which attack forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated?

A. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
B. Packet Sniffing
C. Man-in-the-Middle
D. SQL Injection

20 What is a 'Directory Traversal' attack?

A. Injecting SQL commands
B. Overloading the server with requests
C. Accessing restricted directories and files by manipulating file paths
D. Stealing cookies

21 In Email Forensics, what is the role of an MTA (Mail Transfer Agent)?

A. To display emails to the user
B. To route and transfer emails between servers
C. To attach files
D. To read emails

22 What is the standard port number for SMTP traffic?

A. 25
B. 21
C. 443
D. 80

23 Which component of an IDS is responsible for collecting data from the network?

A. Sensor
B. Database
C. Analyzer
D. Console

24 What is the main disadvantage of Anomaly-based IDS?

A. It cannot detect new attacks
B. It requires virus signatures
C. It is only for wireless networks
D. It has a high rate of false positives

25 Which web attack aims to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users?

A. Privilege Escalation
B. SQL Injection
C. DoS (Denial of Service)
D. Phishing

26 What does a 'Logic Bomb' generally refer to in cyber crime?

A. Malicious code set to execute when specific conditions are met
B. A type of firewall
C. A physical explosive
D. A failed hacking attempt

27 Which of the following is a tool often used for network intrusion detection?

A. Excel
B. Word
C. Photoshop
D. Snort

28 In the context of the Dark Web, what is an 'Exit Node'?

A. The first server you connect to
B. The server where traffic leaves the Tor network to reach the open internet
C. An offline server
D. A firewall rule

29 What is the first step in an email crime investigation?

A. Deleting the spam
B. Seizing the suspect's computer
C. Acquiring and preserving the email evidence
D. Arresting the suspect

30 Which email protocol leaves the original email on the server by default?

A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. IMAP
D. POP3

31 What is 'Session Hijacking'?

A. Breaking a password
B. Stealing a laptop
C. Phishing for credit cards
D. Taking over a user's active web session by stealing the session ID

32 Which of the following is a passive security device?

A. IPS
B. Firewall
C. IDS
D. Proxy Server

33 In a SQL injection attack, what does the input ' OR '1'='1 typically achieve?

A. It deletes the database
B. It shuts down the server
C. It evaluates to True, bypassing authentication
D. It encrypts the data

34 Which type of XSS attack stores the malicious script permanently on the target server (e.g., in a forum post)?

A. Local XSS
B. Reflected XSS
C. Stored (Persistent) XSS
D. DOM-based XSS

35 What is the purpose of 'DKIM' in email security?

A. To verify that an email message was not forged or altered
B. To archive emails
C. To encrypt the email body
D. To block spam

36 A 'Zero-day' attack refers to:

A. An attack that happens at midnight
B. An attack on a closed network
C. An attack that takes zero seconds
D. An attack exploiting a vulnerability unknown to the software vendor

37 Which part of the email header is easiest to spoof?

A. Received-By IP
B. From address
C. Message-ID
D. DKIM Signature

38 What does a Host-based IDS (HIDS) monitor?

A. Traffic on the entire subnet
B. Traffic at the ISP level
C. Wireless signals only
D. Activity and logs on a specific individual device

39 What is 'Bitcoin's' primary role in the Dark Web?

A. It is a common method for anonymous payment
B. It acts as a firewall
C. It is the software used to browse
D. It is the hosting provider

40 Which attack involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties?

A. DDoS
B. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
C. Logic Bomb
D. Phishing

41 What is 'Business Email Compromise' (BEC)?

A. Spam advertising
B. Email server maintenance
C. A virus that deletes emails
D. A scam compromising legitimate business email accounts to conduct unauthorized transfers

42 The 'Deep Web' includes:

A. Anything not indexed by search engines (e.g., medical records, academic databases)
B. Only social media
C. Only illegal content
D. Google search results

43 Which mechanism in a WAF allows only pre-approved traffic and blocks everything else?

A. Blacklisting
B. Whitelisting
C. Redlisting
D. Greylisting

44 In web attacks, what is a 'Brute Force' attack?

A. Sending a virus via email
B. Guessing passwords by trying every possible combination
C. Injecting SQL code
D. Physically breaking the server

45 What distinguishes a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) from a standard DoS?

A. DDoS is slower
B. DDoS uses a single attacker machine
C. DDoS uses multiple compromised systems (botnet) to attack
D. DDoS targets emails only

46 Which file on a web server determines which parts of the site crawlers are permitted to access?

A. config.php
B. style.css
C. index.html
D. robots.txt

47 What is the primary utility of 'Packet Sniffing' in forensics?

A. To clean viruses
B. To capture and analyze data traffic moving across a network
C. To edit files remotely
D. To encrypt hard drives

48 In email forensics, 'MUA' stands for:

A. Mail Unified Access
B. Mail Upload Agent
C. Mail User Agent
D. Master User Authorization

49 Which vulnerability allows an attacker to include a file, usually exploiting a 'dynamic file inclusion' mechanism implemented in the target application?

A. Local File Inclusion (LFI)
B. Brute Force
C. Syn Flood
D. Dictionary Attack

50 The 'Silk Road' was a famous marketplace located on:

A. The Dark Web
B. The Surface Web
C. A private LAN
D. Facebook