Unit 5 - Practice Quiz

INT250 50 Questions
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1 Which part of the internet is not indexed by standard search engines and requires specific software, configurations, or authorization to access?

A. Deep Web
B. Surface Web
C. Transparent Web
D. Dark Web

2 What is the primary routing mechanism used by the Tor network to maintain user anonymity?

A. Tomato Routing
B. Packet Switching
C. Garlic Routing
D. Onion Routing

3 Which Top-Level Domain (TLD) is specifically associated with sites hosted on the Tor network?

A. .com
B. .exe
C. .onion
D. .tor

4 In the context of email basics, what does SMTP stand for?

A. Secure Mail Transmission Protocol
B. Standard Mail Text Protocol
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
D. System Mail Transfer Protocol

5 Which protocol is primarily used by email clients to retrieve messages from a mail server?

A. FTP
B. SNMP
C. IMAP
D. SMTP

6 What is the most critical section of an email for forensic analysis when tracing the origin of a message?

A. The Email Body
B. The Email Header
C. The Signature Block
D. The Subject Line

7 Which specific field in an email header usually reveals the IP address of the sender?

A. Received
B. From
C. To
D. Return-Path

8 What is the term for an email attack where the sender manipulates the address to make it appear as if it came from a trusted source?

A. Email Spoofing
B. Email Spiking
C. Email Bombing
D. Email Sniffing

9 In a phishing investigation, what is 'Typosquatting'?

A. Encrypting the email body
B. Deleting email logs
C. Using all caps in the subject line
D. Registering a domain name extremely similar to a legitimate one

10 Which type of phishing attack specifically targets high-profile executives like CEOs or CFOs?

A. Smishing
B. Vishing
C. Whaling
D. Spear Phishing

11 What is the primary function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

A. To encrypt network data
B. To block all network traffic
C. To act as a web server
D. To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

12 How does an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) differ mainly from an IDS?

A. IPS takes active action to stop the threat
B. IPS only logs data
C. IPS is slower
D. IPS cannot detect viruses

13 Which type of IDS detection method relies on a database of known attack patterns?

A. Signature-based detection
B. Heuristic detection
C. Behavior-based detection
D. Anomaly-based detection

14 What is a 'False Positive' in the context of IDS/IPS?

A. A system crash
B. A legitimate activity flagged as malicious
C. A malicious attack that is missed
D. A successful virus removal

15 What does WAF stand for in web security?

A. Web Application Firewall
B. Wireless Access Firewall
C. Windows Authentication File
D. Wide Area Firewall

16 At which layer of the OSI model does a Web Application Firewall (WAF) primarily operate?

A. Layer 2 (Data Link)
B. Layer 7 (Application)
C. Layer 4 (Transport)
D. Layer 3 (Network)

17 Which attack involves injecting malicious SQL queries into input fields to manipulate a database?

A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
B. SQL Injection
C. CSRF
D. Buffer Overflow

18 What type of web attack involves injecting malicious scripts into trusted websites viewed by other users?

A. SQL Injection
B. Brute Force
C. Directory Traversal
D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

19 Which attack forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated?

A. SQL Injection
B. Packet Sniffing
C. Man-in-the-Middle
D. Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

20 What is a 'Directory Traversal' attack?

A. Overloading the server with requests
B. Stealing cookies
C. Accessing restricted directories and files by manipulating file paths
D. Injecting SQL commands

21 In Email Forensics, what is the role of an MTA (Mail Transfer Agent)?

A. To route and transfer emails between servers
B. To attach files
C. To display emails to the user
D. To read emails

22 What is the standard port number for SMTP traffic?

A. 21
B. 443
C. 80
D. 25

23 Which component of an IDS is responsible for collecting data from the network?

A. Database
B. Console
C. Sensor
D. Analyzer

24 What is the main disadvantage of Anomaly-based IDS?

A. It cannot detect new attacks
B. It is only for wireless networks
C. It has a high rate of false positives
D. It requires virus signatures

25 Which web attack aims to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users?

A. SQL Injection
B. DoS (Denial of Service)
C. Privilege Escalation
D. Phishing

26 What does a 'Logic Bomb' generally refer to in cyber crime?

A. Malicious code set to execute when specific conditions are met
B. A type of firewall
C. A failed hacking attempt
D. A physical explosive

27 Which of the following is a tool often used for network intrusion detection?

A. Word
B. Photoshop
C. Excel
D. Snort

28 In the context of the Dark Web, what is an 'Exit Node'?

A. The server where traffic leaves the Tor network to reach the open internet
B. An offline server
C. The first server you connect to
D. A firewall rule

29 What is the first step in an email crime investigation?

A. Acquiring and preserving the email evidence
B. Seizing the suspect's computer
C. Arresting the suspect
D. Deleting the spam

30 Which email protocol leaves the original email on the server by default?

A. POP3
B. HTTP
C. IMAP
D. FTP

31 What is 'Session Hijacking'?

A. Breaking a password
B. Taking over a user's active web session by stealing the session ID
C. Stealing a laptop
D. Phishing for credit cards

32 Which of the following is a passive security device?

A. Proxy Server
B. IPS
C. Firewall
D. IDS

33 In a SQL injection attack, what does the input ' OR '1'='1 typically achieve?

A. It deletes the database
B. It shuts down the server
C. It evaluates to True, bypassing authentication
D. It encrypts the data

34 Which type of XSS attack stores the malicious script permanently on the target server (e.g., in a forum post)?

A. Reflected XSS
B. Stored (Persistent) XSS
C. DOM-based XSS
D. Local XSS

35 What is the purpose of 'DKIM' in email security?

A. To archive emails
B. To verify that an email message was not forged or altered
C. To block spam
D. To encrypt the email body

36 A 'Zero-day' attack refers to:

A. An attack that takes zero seconds
B. An attack exploiting a vulnerability unknown to the software vendor
C. An attack on a closed network
D. An attack that happens at midnight

37 Which part of the email header is easiest to spoof?

A. From address
B. Received-By IP
C. Message-ID
D. DKIM Signature

38 What does a Host-based IDS (HIDS) monitor?

A. Activity and logs on a specific individual device
B. Wireless signals only
C. Traffic on the entire subnet
D. Traffic at the ISP level

39 What is 'Bitcoin's' primary role in the Dark Web?

A. It is a common method for anonymous payment
B. It is the software used to browse
C. It is the hosting provider
D. It acts as a firewall

40 Which attack involves an attacker intercepting communication between two parties?

A. DDoS
B. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
C. Phishing
D. Logic Bomb

41 What is 'Business Email Compromise' (BEC)?

A. A virus that deletes emails
B. Spam advertising
C. Email server maintenance
D. A scam compromising legitimate business email accounts to conduct unauthorized transfers

42 The 'Deep Web' includes:

A. Google search results
B. Only social media
C. Anything not indexed by search engines (e.g., medical records, academic databases)
D. Only illegal content

43 Which mechanism in a WAF allows only pre-approved traffic and blocks everything else?

A. Blacklisting
B. Greylisting
C. Whitelisting
D. Redlisting

44 In web attacks, what is a 'Brute Force' attack?

A. Guessing passwords by trying every possible combination
B. Physically breaking the server
C. Injecting SQL code
D. Sending a virus via email

45 What distinguishes a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) from a standard DoS?

A. DDoS is slower
B. DDoS uses multiple compromised systems (botnet) to attack
C. DDoS targets emails only
D. DDoS uses a single attacker machine

46 Which file on a web server determines which parts of the site crawlers are permitted to access?

A. robots.txt
B. style.css
C. config.php
D. index.html

47 What is the primary utility of 'Packet Sniffing' in forensics?

A. To encrypt hard drives
B. To clean viruses
C. To edit files remotely
D. To capture and analyze data traffic moving across a network

48 In email forensics, 'MUA' stands for:

A. Mail User Agent
B. Mail Unified Access
C. Master User Authorization
D. Mail Upload Agent

49 Which vulnerability allows an attacker to include a file, usually exploiting a 'dynamic file inclusion' mechanism implemented in the target application?

A. Syn Flood
B. Brute Force
C. Dictionary Attack
D. Local File Inclusion (LFI)

50 The 'Silk Road' was a famous marketplace located on:

A. A private LAN
B. The Dark Web
C. Facebook
D. The Surface Web