Unit 6: Application Layer and Wireless Networks - Practice Quiz

CSE306 — Computer Networks 60 Questions
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1 What is the main purpose of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

Domain Name System Easy
A. To encrypt messages sent by email
B. To translate domain names into IP addresses
C. To transfer files between computers
D. To connect Bluetooth devices

2 Which DNS record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address?

Domain Name System Easy
A. MX record
B. A record
C. CNAME record
D. NS record

3 Which protocol is commonly used to send email from a client to a mail server?

Email Easy
A. SMTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. HTTP

4 Which email protocol normally keeps messages on the server and synchronizes them across devices?

Email Easy
A. IMAP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. ARP

5 What is the primary purpose of FTP?

FTP Easy
A. To send wireless radio frames
B. To resolve names into addresses
C. To transfer files over a network
D. To manage email mailboxes

6 Which two connections are traditionally used by FTP?

FTP Easy
A. Control and data connections
B. Local and remote connections
C. Input and output connections
D. Voice and video connections

7 What medium is commonly used to transmit data in a wireless network?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Easy
A. Coaxial cables
B. Radio waves
C. Copper wires
D. Fiber strands

8 Which device commonly connects wireless clients to a wired local network?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Easy
A. Network repeater
B. DNS resolver
C. Email server
D. Wireless access point

9 The IEEE 802.11 standards are mainly associated with which technology?

IEEE 802.11 Easy
A. Satellite television
B. Wireless LAN
C. Wired Ethernet
D. Cellular voice

10 What does SSID identify in an IEEE 802.11 network?

IEEE 802.11 Easy
A. The device hardware address
B. The Internet protocol version
C. The email account name
D. The wireless network name

11 Which frequency band is used by IEEE 802.11a?

802.11a Easy
A. 60 GHz
B. 900 MHz
C. 5 GHz
D. 2.4 GHz

12 What is the maximum theoretical data rate of IEEE 802.11b?

802.11b Easy
A. 150 Mbps
B. 11 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 24 Mbps

13 What is the maximum theoretical data rate of IEEE 802.11g?

802.11g Easy
A. 11 Mbps
B. 24 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 150 Mbps

14 Which technology is a major feature of IEEE 802.11n?

802.11n Easy
A. Token passing
B. Frequency dialing
C. MIMO
D. Circuit switching

15 What is a small Bluetooth network with one central device and connected devices called?

Bluetooth Architecture Easy
A. Subnet
B. Piconet
C. Intranet
D. Ethernet

16 What is formed when multiple Bluetooth piconets are interconnected?

Bluetooth Architecture Easy
A. Scatternet
B. Metropolitan network
C. Broadcast domain
D. Virtual circuit

17 Bluetooth is mainly designed for which type of communication?

Bluetooth Architecture Easy
A. Underwater cable communication
B. Short-range wireless communication
C. Long-range satellite communication
D. Wide-area cellular communication

18 Which Bluetooth layer handles radio transmission and reception?

Bluetooth Layers Easy
A. Application layer
B. Radio layer
C. Service layer
D. L2CAP layer

19 Which Bluetooth layer adapts upper-layer protocols to the lower baseband layer?

Bluetooth Layers Easy
A. DNS
B. SMTP
C. L2CAP
D. HTTP

20 Which Bluetooth protocol emulates a serial cable connection?

Bluetooth Layers Easy
A. Baseband
B. L2CAP
C. Link Manager
D. RFCOMM

21 A DNS resolver has cached an address record with a TTL of 900 seconds. A client requests the same record 600 seconds later. What should the resolver normally do?

Domain Name System Medium
A. Discard the record because half its TTL has passed
B. Contact the root server before returning the record
C. Return the cached record with 300 seconds remaining
D. Query the authoritative server and reset the TTL

22 An administrator wants email for example.com to be delivered to mail.example.com. Which DNS record should be configured for example.com?

Domain Name System Medium
A. An MX record referencing mail.example.com
B. A PTR record referencing mail.example.com
C. A CNAME record referencing mail.example.com
D. An NS record referencing mail.example.com

23 A network administrator needs to determine the hostname associated with the IP address 192.0.2.25. Which DNS operation is required?

Domain Name System Medium
A. A mail lookup using an MX record
B. A forward lookup using an A record
C. An alias lookup using a CNAME record
D. A reverse lookup using a PTR record

24 A user wants messages and folder changes to remain synchronized across a laptop and a phone. Which protocol is most appropriate for retrieving the messages?

Email Medium
A. IMAP because it maintains server-side mail state
B. FTP because it preserves mailbox folder structure
C. POP3 because it always synchronizes server folders
D. SMTP because it retrieves and organizes messages

25 An email containing a JPEG attachment must travel through systems originally designed for text messages. Which mechanism enables the attachment to be represented correctly?

Email Medium
A. SMTP with an appropriate DNS address record
B. IMAP with an appropriate mailbox and folder
C. POP3 with an appropriate retrieval transaction
D. MIME with an appropriate content type and encoding

26 An FTP client is behind a firewall that blocks unsolicited incoming connections. Which FTP mode is generally more suitable?

FTP Medium
A. Active mode, because the server opens both connections
B. Passive mode, because it uses only a control connection
C. Active mode, because it uses only a data connection
D. Passive mode, because the client opens both connections

27 During an FTP session, a large file is being transferred while the client sends a command to list another directory. Which FTP feature supports this behavior?

FTP Medium
A. A shared TCP connection with fixed time slots
B. Separate request and response UDP datagrams
C. Separate control and data TCP connections
D. A shared UDP connection with numbered commands

28 Stations A and C can both reach station B but cannot hear each other. Their simultaneous transmissions repeatedly collide at B. Which technique most directly reduces this hidden-terminal problem?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Medium
A. Using frequency-independent signal amplification
B. Using RTS and CTS before transmitting data
C. Using full-duplex Ethernet collision detection
D. Using DNS caching before resolving addresses

29 A company wants wireless clients to communicate with each other and access its wired LAN through a central device. Which network arrangement should it deploy?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Medium
A. Ad hoc mode with no wireless access point
B. Infrastructure mode with a wireless access point
C. Mesh mode with no connection to the wired LAN
D. Peer mode with a dedicated Bluetooth controller

30 A wireless station detects that an IEEE 802.11 channel is busy. Under CSMA/CA, what should it normally do before attempting transmission?

IEEE 802.11 Medium
A. Transmit immediately and detect any resulting collision
B. Send data continuously until an acknowledgment arrives
C. Switch permanently to another channel without listening
D. Wait for the channel and then use a random backoff

31 A unicast IEEE 802.11 data frame is received correctly, but the sender does not receive the expected acknowledgment. What will the sender normally infer?

IEEE 802.11 Medium
A. The transmission failed and may need retransmission
B. The transmission succeeded and should not be repeated
C. The access point has changed the network's SSID
D. The receiver has permanently left the wireless network

32 An office has heavy interference from older 2.4 GHz devices and uses only clients compatible with both bands. Why might 802.11a be selected?

802.11a Medium
A. It operates in 5 GHz and supports up to 11 Mbps
B. It operates in 5 GHz and supports up to 54 Mbps
C. It operates in 2.4 GHz and supports up to 54 Mbps
D. It operates in 2.4 GHz and supports up to 11 Mbps

33 An 802.11b client moves farther from its access point and experiences a weaker signal. Which rate adaptation is consistent with the standard's supported data rates?

802.11b Medium
A. Increase the rate from 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps
B. Reduce the rate from 11 Mbps to 5.5 Mbps
C. Increase the rate from 5.5 Mbps to 150 Mbps
D. Reduce the rate from 54 Mbps to 24 Mbps

34 An 802.11g access point permits an 802.11b client to join the network. What is a likely consequence for the wireless cell?

802.11g Medium
A. Compatibility is lost, but overall efficiency must increase
B. Compatibility is maintained, but overall efficiency may decrease
C. The access point automatically changes to the 5 GHz band
D. The client automatically gains the full 802.11g data rate

35 An 802.11n access point uses multiple antennas to transmit independent data streams at the same time. Which feature is being applied?

802.11n Medium
A. Bluetooth frequency hopping
B. CSMA collision detection
C. DNS query multiplexing
D. MIMO spatial multiplexing

36 An administrator configures an 802.11n access point to combine two adjacent 20 MHz channels. What is the main intended benefit?

802.11n Medium
A. Higher throughput through a 40 MHz channel
B. Greater security through a 60 MHz channel
C. Lower latency through a 5 MHz channel
D. Longer range through a 10 MHz channel

37 Eight Bluetooth devices must participate actively in a single piconet. How should their roles normally be arranged under classic Bluetooth?

Bluetooth Architecture Medium
A. Two masters and six active slaves
B. One master and seven active slaves
C. Eight masters with no active slaves
D. Four masters and four active slaves

38 A Bluetooth device participates in one piconet and also connects to devices in another piconet. What larger arrangement is formed?

Bluetooth Architecture Medium
A. A basic service set linking access points
B. A collision domain linking Ethernet segments
C. A DNS zone linking authoritative servers
D. A scatternet linking multiple piconets

39 Several upper-layer Bluetooth protocols need to share one lower-layer connection, and large packets may require segmentation. Which layer provides these functions?

Bluetooth Layers Medium
A. Radio
B. RFCOMM
C. L2CAP
D. Baseband

40 A legacy application expects an RS-232-style serial connection, but it must communicate over Bluetooth. Which Bluetooth protocol is designed for this purpose?

Bluetooth Layers Medium
A. Service Discovery Protocol
B. L2CAP
C. Baseband
D. RFCOMM

41 A recursive resolver receives an authoritative NXDOMAIN response for api.example.com with a negative-cache TTL of seconds. After seconds, the zone administrator creates an A record for that name, but the resolver is not notified. What response may the resolver legitimately return at seconds?

Domain Name System Hard
A. A. The new A record, because positive data overrides negative cache entries
B. D. A referral to the authoritative server, because negative answers cannot be reused
C. B. NXDOMAIN, because the cached negative response has not expired
D. C. SERVFAIL, because the authoritative zone changed during the TTL

42 A parent zone delegates child.example to ns1.child.example and ns.outside.net. Which handling of address records in the referral is correct?

Domain Name System Hard
A. A. Include required glue for ns1.child.example; resolve ns.outside.net separately
B. B. Include authoritative glue for both servers because both appear in the NS set
C. C. Omit all glue because recursive resolvers must query every server name independently
D. D. Copy the complete address and alias chains of both name servers into the parent zone so that the referral remains authoritative even if either external zone is unavailable

43 A zone contains both pay.example. CNAME host.vendor.net. and pay.example. MX 10 mail.example.. Ignoring DNSSEC-generated records, what is the fundamental configuration error?

Domain Name System Hard
A. C. A CNAME cannot coexist with an MX record at the same owner name
B. B. A CNAME target must reside inside the same authoritative DNS zone
C. D. An MX preference value cannot be used when the owner has an alias
D. A. An MX record must always point to the same target as a CNAME record

44 An SMTP message body contains the logical lines alpha, ., and ..beta. Which sequence must be transmitted after DATA, including the SMTP end marker?

Email Hard
A. C. alpha\r\n...\r\n....beta\r\n.\r\n
B. A. alpha\r\n..\r\n...beta\r\n.\r\n
C. B. alpha\r\n.\r\n..beta\r\n.\r\n
D. D. alpha\r\n..\r\n..beta\r\n..\r\n

45 A forwarder retransmits a message without changing its signed headers or body. SPF fails because the forwarder's IP is not authorized for the original envelope-sender domain. Under what condition can DMARC still pass?

Email Hard
A. B. A valid DKIM signature has a domain aligned with the visible From domain
B. A. The original SMTP server used port 587 rather than port 25
C. D. DMARC automatically ignores SPF after forwarding and accepts the message whenever its MIME structure and all original Received headers remain unchanged
D. C. The forwarder replaces the envelope sender with any locally valid address

46 An IMAP client caches messages by UID. On reconnecting, it finds that the mailbox's UIDVALIDITY value has changed, although several old UID numbers are still present. What is the correct action?

Email Hard
A. A. Continue using the cache because UIDs are globally permanent
B. D. Retain only entries whose UIDs are smaller than UIDNEXT
C. C. Invalidate the UID-based cache and rebuild mailbox mappings
D. B. Match cached messages using their current sequence numbers

47 A client behind a NAT successfully establishes an FTP control connection but sends a PORT command containing its private address. The directory listing then fails. Which change most directly addresses the problem?

FTP Hard
A. B. Use ASCII transfer mode so the NAT can inspect the listing
B. A. Use passive mode so the client initiates the data connection
C. C. Move the control connection from port 21 to port 20
D. D. Send REST 0 before every command that transfers directory data

48 A compressed archive is uploaded through FTP using TYPE A. Its byte count changes and its checksum no longer matches the source. Which explanation and remedy are correct?

FTP Hard
A. C. Passive mode compressed the data; repeat using active mode
B. D. The server removed FTP framing bytes; repeat using stream mode
C. B. ASCII conversion changed byte sequences; repeat using TYPE I
D. A. Control-channel replies entered the file; use a separate login account

49 Stations A and C cannot hear each other, but both can communicate with access point B. They simultaneously send RTS frames to B. What limitation of RTS/CTS is illustrated?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Hard
A. B. Hidden stations become exposed only after receiving an ACK
B. C. The RTS frames can still collide at B, requiring contention and retry
C. A. RTS frames are never subject to collisions because they are short
D. D. The access point combines both overlapping RTS frames, decodes their duration fields, and allocates separate collision-free channels for the subsequent data transmissions

50 A transmits to B. Station C hears A and therefore defers, even though C could transmit to D without interfering with reception at B. Which phenomenon is present?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Hard
A. B. The exposed-terminal problem caused by conservative carrier sensing
B. D. The near-far problem caused by different spreading-code correlations at D
C. C. The capture effect caused by unequal received signal powers
D. A. The hidden-terminal problem caused by asymmetric reachability

51 In an IEEE 802.11 RTS/CTS exchange, a station cannot hear the sender's RTS but does hear the receiver's CTS. Why should it still defer?

IEEE 802.11 Hard
A. A. The CTS duration updates its NAV for the remaining reserved exchange
B. B. The CTS permanently marks the channel as controlled by the receiver
C. D. Receiving a CTS changes the station's physical carrier-sensing threshold
D. C. Every CTS forces all stations to reset their contention windows to zero

52 An 802.11 DCF station selects a backoff of slots. It counts down idle slots, then another transmission makes the medium busy. Assuming its own frame has not yet been transmitted, what happens after the medium becomes idle again?

IEEE 802.11 Hard
A. A. It waits one DIFS and resumes with remaining slots
B. D. It immediately transmits because the original DIFS was already observed
C. B. It waits one SIFS and resumes with remaining slots
D. C. It waits one DIFS and draws a new backoff from a doubled window

53 Why does an 802.11 sender normally not retransmit a broadcast data frame at the MAC layer when one receiver misses it?

IEEE 802.11 Hard
A. C. Broadcast frames receive no per-recipient ACK that could trigger retry
B. B. Broadcast frames are delivered through the access point's wired interface
C. A. Broadcast frames are protected by mandatory RTS/CTS exchanges
D. D. Every receiver sends a delayed cumulative acknowledgment containing reception state for all broadcast frames observed during the current beacon interval

54 An 802.11a-only access point transmits beacons normally, but an 802.11b-only client does not discover it. What is the primary reason?

802.11a Hard
A. C. 802.11b clients reject all access points whose maximum rate exceeds 11 Mbps
B. B. 802.11a suppresses beacon frames unless an 802.11a client probes first
C. A. 802.11a uses a 5 GHz OFDM PHY that the 2.4 GHz client cannot receive
D. D. 802.11a encrypts management frames using a modulation-specific mandatory key

55 Which mapping of legacy 802.11b data rates to physical-layer coding is correct?

802.11b Hard
A. B. 1 and 2 Mbps use CCK; 5.5 and 11 Mbps use OFDM
B. D. All four rates use OFDM with different convolutional coding rates
C. A. 1 and 2 Mbps use Barker spreading; 5.5 and 11 Mbps use CCK
D. C. 1 and 5.5 Mbps use Barker spreading; 2 and 11 Mbps use OFDM

56 An 802.11g network's throughput falls after a legacy 802.11b station associates, even though that station sends little application data. What is the best explanation?

802.11g Hard
A. C. OFDM becomes prohibited for every associated 802.11g station
B. A. The access point must move all traffic from 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz
C. B. Protection exchanges and legacy timing add airtime overhead
D. D. The contention window is permanently doubled for all stations

57 On an error-prone 802.11n link, which aggregation method permits successful subframes to remain accepted while only corrupted MPDUs are retransmitted using Block ACK information?

802.11n Hard
A. A. A-MSDU, because all MSDUs have independent PHY preambles
B. B. A-MPDU, because each aggregated MPDU retains its own FCS
C. C. Channel bonding, because each 20 MHz half is acknowledged separately
D. D. Spatial multiplexing, because each spatial stream has an independent ACK

58 A Bluetooth device bridges two classic piconets whose masters use different hopping sequences. How does the bridge normally participate?

Bluetooth Architecture Hard
A. D. It forces both piconet masters to adopt the bridge's native clock
B. C. It merges both masters' addresses into a single scatternet hop sequence
C. A. It time-shares participation and resynchronizes when switching piconets
D. B. It follows both hopping sequences simultaneously on one classic radio

59 In a classic Bluetooth piconet, which information primarily determines the channel-hopping sequence and phase followed by connected slave devices?

Bluetooth Architecture Hard
A. A. The master's device address and native clock
B. C. The strongest slave's address and received signal strength
C. D. The service UUID and L2CAP channel identifier of the active application
D. B. The slaves' averaged clocks and logical transport addresses

60 A classic Bluetooth application must discover a remote serial-port service and then exchange a serial-style byte stream. Which protocol sequence is appropriate?

Bluetooth Layers Hard
A. A. Use SDP for discovery, then RFCOMM over L2CAP for the stream
B. D. Use L2CAP to query every remote application process directly, then bypass RFCOMM and transmit the serial stream as unframed inquiry packets on the physical radio
C. B. Use RFCOMM for discovery, then SDP directly over the baseband
D. C. Use HCI for discovery, then SCO as a reliable serial byte stream