Unit 6: Application Layer and Wireless Networks - Practice Quiz

CSE306 — Computer Networks 60 Questions
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1 What is the main purpose of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

Domain Name System Easy
A. To encrypt messages sent by email
B. To connect Bluetooth devices
C. To translate domain names into IP addresses
D. To transfer files between computers

2 Which DNS record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address?

Domain Name System Easy
A. NS record
B. CNAME record
C. A record
D. MX record

3 Which protocol is commonly used to send email from a client to a mail server?

Email Easy
A. HTTP
B. SMTP
C. FTP
D. DNS

4 Which email protocol normally keeps messages on the server and synchronizes them across devices?

Email Easy
A. SMTP
B. ARP
C. FTP
D. IMAP

5 What is the primary purpose of FTP?

FTP Easy
A. To resolve names into addresses
B. To transfer files over a network
C. To manage email mailboxes
D. To send wireless radio frames

6 Which two connections are traditionally used by FTP?

FTP Easy
A. Voice and video connections
B. Input and output connections
C. Control and data connections
D. Local and remote connections

7 What medium is commonly used to transmit data in a wireless network?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Easy
A. Copper wires
B. Fiber strands
C. Coaxial cables
D. Radio waves

8 Which device commonly connects wireless clients to a wired local network?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Easy
A. Email server
B. Network repeater
C. Wireless access point
D. DNS resolver

9 The IEEE 802.11 standards are mainly associated with which technology?

IEEE 802.11 Easy
A. Cellular voice
B. Satellite television
C. Wireless LAN
D. Wired Ethernet

10 What does SSID identify in an IEEE 802.11 network?

IEEE 802.11 Easy
A. The email account name
B. The device hardware address
C. The Internet protocol version
D. The wireless network name

11 Which frequency band is used by IEEE 802.11a?

802.11a Easy
A. 60 GHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 5 GHz
D. 900 MHz

12 What is the maximum theoretical data rate of IEEE 802.11b?

802.11b Easy
A. 11 Mbps
B. 24 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 150 Mbps

13 What is the maximum theoretical data rate of IEEE 802.11g?

802.11g Easy
A. 11 Mbps
B. 54 Mbps
C. 150 Mbps
D. 24 Mbps

14 Which technology is a major feature of IEEE 802.11n?

802.11n Easy
A. MIMO
B. Circuit switching
C. Token passing
D. Frequency dialing

15 What is a small Bluetooth network with one central device and connected devices called?

Bluetooth Architecture Easy
A. Intranet
B. Piconet
C. Subnet
D. Ethernet

16 What is formed when multiple Bluetooth piconets are interconnected?

Bluetooth Architecture Easy
A. Metropolitan network
B. Scatternet
C. Virtual circuit
D. Broadcast domain

17 Bluetooth is mainly designed for which type of communication?

Bluetooth Architecture Easy
A. Underwater cable communication
B. Wide-area cellular communication
C. Long-range satellite communication
D. Short-range wireless communication

18 Which Bluetooth layer handles radio transmission and reception?

Bluetooth Layers Easy
A. Radio layer
B. L2CAP layer
C. Application layer
D. Service layer

19 Which Bluetooth layer adapts upper-layer protocols to the lower baseband layer?

Bluetooth Layers Easy
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. L2CAP
D. SMTP

20 Which Bluetooth protocol emulates a serial cable connection?

Bluetooth Layers Easy
A. Baseband
B. L2CAP
C. RFCOMM
D. Link Manager

21 A DNS resolver has cached an address record with a TTL of 900 seconds. A client requests the same record 600 seconds later. What should the resolver normally do?

Domain Name System Medium
A. Query the authoritative server and reset the TTL
B. Discard the record because half its TTL has passed
C. Return the cached record with 300 seconds remaining
D. Contact the root server before returning the record

22 An administrator wants email for example.com to be delivered to mail.example.com. Which DNS record should be configured for example.com?

Domain Name System Medium
A. A PTR record referencing mail.example.com
B. A CNAME record referencing mail.example.com
C. An MX record referencing mail.example.com
D. An NS record referencing mail.example.com

23 A network administrator needs to determine the hostname associated with the IP address 192.0.2.25. Which DNS operation is required?

Domain Name System Medium
A. A reverse lookup using a PTR record
B. A mail lookup using an MX record
C. A forward lookup using an A record
D. An alias lookup using a CNAME record

24 A user wants messages and folder changes to remain synchronized across a laptop and a phone. Which protocol is most appropriate for retrieving the messages?

Email Medium
A. SMTP because it retrieves and organizes messages
B. POP3 because it always synchronizes server folders
C. FTP because it preserves mailbox folder structure
D. IMAP because it maintains server-side mail state

25 An email containing a JPEG attachment must travel through systems originally designed for text messages. Which mechanism enables the attachment to be represented correctly?

Email Medium
A. SMTP with an appropriate DNS address record
B. POP3 with an appropriate retrieval transaction
C. MIME with an appropriate content type and encoding
D. IMAP with an appropriate mailbox and folder

26 An FTP client is behind a firewall that blocks unsolicited incoming connections. Which FTP mode is generally more suitable?

FTP Medium
A. Active mode, because it uses only a data connection
B. Active mode, because the server opens both connections
C. Passive mode, because the client opens both connections
D. Passive mode, because it uses only a control connection

27 During an FTP session, a large file is being transferred while the client sends a command to list another directory. Which FTP feature supports this behavior?

FTP Medium
A. Separate control and data TCP connections
B. Separate request and response UDP datagrams
C. A shared TCP connection with fixed time slots
D. A shared UDP connection with numbered commands

28 Stations A and C can both reach station B but cannot hear each other. Their simultaneous transmissions repeatedly collide at B. Which technique most directly reduces this hidden-terminal problem?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Medium
A. Using DNS caching before resolving addresses
B. Using full-duplex Ethernet collision detection
C. Using RTS and CTS before transmitting data
D. Using frequency-independent signal amplification

29 A company wants wireless clients to communicate with each other and access its wired LAN through a central device. Which network arrangement should it deploy?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Medium
A. Peer mode with a dedicated Bluetooth controller
B. Infrastructure mode with a wireless access point
C. Mesh mode with no connection to the wired LAN
D. Ad hoc mode with no wireless access point

30 A wireless station detects that an IEEE 802.11 channel is busy. Under CSMA/CA, what should it normally do before attempting transmission?

IEEE 802.11 Medium
A. Switch permanently to another channel without listening
B. Send data continuously until an acknowledgment arrives
C. Wait for the channel and then use a random backoff
D. Transmit immediately and detect any resulting collision

31 A unicast IEEE 802.11 data frame is received correctly, but the sender does not receive the expected acknowledgment. What will the sender normally infer?

IEEE 802.11 Medium
A. The transmission succeeded and should not be repeated
B. The access point has changed the network's SSID
C. The receiver has permanently left the wireless network
D. The transmission failed and may need retransmission

32 An office has heavy interference from older 2.4 GHz devices and uses only clients compatible with both bands. Why might 802.11a be selected?

802.11a Medium
A. It operates in 2.4 GHz and supports up to 54 Mbps
B. It operates in 5 GHz and supports up to 54 Mbps
C. It operates in 2.4 GHz and supports up to 11 Mbps
D. It operates in 5 GHz and supports up to 11 Mbps

33 An 802.11b client moves farther from its access point and experiences a weaker signal. Which rate adaptation is consistent with the standard's supported data rates?

802.11b Medium
A. Reduce the rate from 11 Mbps to 5.5 Mbps
B. Increase the rate from 5.5 Mbps to 150 Mbps
C. Reduce the rate from 54 Mbps to 24 Mbps
D. Increase the rate from 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps

34 An 802.11g access point permits an 802.11b client to join the network. What is a likely consequence for the wireless cell?

802.11g Medium
A. Compatibility is lost, but overall efficiency must increase
B. The client automatically gains the full 802.11g data rate
C. The access point automatically changes to the 5 GHz band
D. Compatibility is maintained, but overall efficiency may decrease

35 An 802.11n access point uses multiple antennas to transmit independent data streams at the same time. Which feature is being applied?

802.11n Medium
A. MIMO spatial multiplexing
B. DNS query multiplexing
C. Bluetooth frequency hopping
D. CSMA collision detection

36 An administrator configures an 802.11n access point to combine two adjacent 20 MHz channels. What is the main intended benefit?

802.11n Medium
A. Higher throughput through a 40 MHz channel
B. Lower latency through a 5 MHz channel
C. Greater security through a 60 MHz channel
D. Longer range through a 10 MHz channel

37 Eight Bluetooth devices must participate actively in a single piconet. How should their roles normally be arranged under classic Bluetooth?

Bluetooth Architecture Medium
A. Eight masters with no active slaves
B. Four masters and four active slaves
C. Two masters and six active slaves
D. One master and seven active slaves

38 A Bluetooth device participates in one piconet and also connects to devices in another piconet. What larger arrangement is formed?

Bluetooth Architecture Medium
A. A DNS zone linking authoritative servers
B. A collision domain linking Ethernet segments
C. A basic service set linking access points
D. A scatternet linking multiple piconets

39 Several upper-layer Bluetooth protocols need to share one lower-layer connection, and large packets may require segmentation. Which layer provides these functions?

Bluetooth Layers Medium
A. L2CAP
B. Baseband
C. Radio
D. RFCOMM

40 A legacy application expects an RS-232-style serial connection, but it must communicate over Bluetooth. Which Bluetooth protocol is designed for this purpose?

Bluetooth Layers Medium
A. L2CAP
B. Baseband
C. RFCOMM
D. Service Discovery Protocol

41 A recursive resolver receives an authoritative NXDOMAIN response for api.example.com with a negative-cache TTL of seconds. After seconds, the zone administrator creates an A record for that name, but the resolver is not notified. What response may the resolver legitimately return at seconds?

Domain Name System Hard
A. C. SERVFAIL, because the authoritative zone changed during the TTL
B. D. A referral to the authoritative server, because negative answers cannot be reused
C. A. The new A record, because positive data overrides negative cache entries
D. B. NXDOMAIN, because the cached negative response has not expired

42 A parent zone delegates child.example to ns1.child.example and ns.outside.net. Which handling of address records in the referral is correct?

Domain Name System Hard
A. D. Copy the complete address and alias chains of both name servers into the parent zone so that the referral remains authoritative even if either external zone is unavailable
B. C. Omit all glue because recursive resolvers must query every server name independently
C. A. Include required glue for ns1.child.example; resolve ns.outside.net separately
D. B. Include authoritative glue for both servers because both appear in the NS set

43 A zone contains both pay.example. CNAME host.vendor.net. and pay.example. MX 10 mail.example.. Ignoring DNSSEC-generated records, what is the fundamental configuration error?

Domain Name System Hard
A. D. An MX preference value cannot be used when the owner has an alias
B. A. An MX record must always point to the same target as a CNAME record
C. B. A CNAME target must reside inside the same authoritative DNS zone
D. C. A CNAME cannot coexist with an MX record at the same owner name

44 An SMTP message body contains the logical lines alpha, ., and ..beta. Which sequence must be transmitted after DATA, including the SMTP end marker?

Email Hard
A. B. alpha\r\n.\r\n..beta\r\n.\r\n
B. A. alpha\r\n..\r\n...beta\r\n.\r\n
C. C. alpha\r\n...\r\n....beta\r\n.\r\n
D. D. alpha\r\n..\r\n..beta\r\n..\r\n

45 A forwarder retransmits a message without changing its signed headers or body. SPF fails because the forwarder's IP is not authorized for the original envelope-sender domain. Under what condition can DMARC still pass?

Email Hard
A. C. The forwarder replaces the envelope sender with any locally valid address
B. A. The original SMTP server used port 587 rather than port 25
C. D. DMARC automatically ignores SPF after forwarding and accepts the message whenever its MIME structure and all original Received headers remain unchanged
D. B. A valid DKIM signature has a domain aligned with the visible From domain

46 An IMAP client caches messages by UID. On reconnecting, it finds that the mailbox's UIDVALIDITY value has changed, although several old UID numbers are still present. What is the correct action?

Email Hard
A. D. Retain only entries whose UIDs are smaller than UIDNEXT
B. B. Match cached messages using their current sequence numbers
C. A. Continue using the cache because UIDs are globally permanent
D. C. Invalidate the UID-based cache and rebuild mailbox mappings

47 A client behind a NAT successfully establishes an FTP control connection but sends a PORT command containing its private address. The directory listing then fails. Which change most directly addresses the problem?

FTP Hard
A. C. Move the control connection from port 21 to port 20
B. B. Use ASCII transfer mode so the NAT can inspect the listing
C. A. Use passive mode so the client initiates the data connection
D. D. Send REST 0 before every command that transfers directory data

48 A compressed archive is uploaded through FTP using TYPE A. Its byte count changes and its checksum no longer matches the source. Which explanation and remedy are correct?

FTP Hard
A. C. Passive mode compressed the data; repeat using active mode
B. B. ASCII conversion changed byte sequences; repeat using TYPE I
C. A. Control-channel replies entered the file; use a separate login account
D. D. The server removed FTP framing bytes; repeat using stream mode

49 Stations A and C cannot hear each other, but both can communicate with access point B. They simultaneously send RTS frames to B. What limitation of RTS/CTS is illustrated?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Hard
A. A. RTS frames are never subject to collisions because they are short
B. B. Hidden stations become exposed only after receiving an ACK
C. C. The RTS frames can still collide at B, requiring contention and retry
D. D. The access point combines both overlapping RTS frames, decodes their duration fields, and allocates separate collision-free channels for the subsequent data transmissions

50 A transmits to B. Station C hears A and therefore defers, even though C could transmit to D without interfering with reception at B. Which phenomenon is present?

Introduction to Wireless Networks Hard
A. A. The hidden-terminal problem caused by asymmetric reachability
B. C. The capture effect caused by unequal received signal powers
C. B. The exposed-terminal problem caused by conservative carrier sensing
D. D. The near-far problem caused by different spreading-code correlations at D

51 In an IEEE 802.11 RTS/CTS exchange, a station cannot hear the sender's RTS but does hear the receiver's CTS. Why should it still defer?

IEEE 802.11 Hard
A. C. Every CTS forces all stations to reset their contention windows to zero
B. B. The CTS permanently marks the channel as controlled by the receiver
C. A. The CTS duration updates its NAV for the remaining reserved exchange
D. D. Receiving a CTS changes the station's physical carrier-sensing threshold

52 An 802.11 DCF station selects a backoff of slots. It counts down idle slots, then another transmission makes the medium busy. Assuming its own frame has not yet been transmitted, what happens after the medium becomes idle again?

IEEE 802.11 Hard
A. C. It waits one DIFS and draws a new backoff from a doubled window
B. B. It waits one SIFS and resumes with remaining slots
C. D. It immediately transmits because the original DIFS was already observed
D. A. It waits one DIFS and resumes with remaining slots

53 Why does an 802.11 sender normally not retransmit a broadcast data frame at the MAC layer when one receiver misses it?

IEEE 802.11 Hard
A. D. Every receiver sends a delayed cumulative acknowledgment containing reception state for all broadcast frames observed during the current beacon interval
B. C. Broadcast frames receive no per-recipient ACK that could trigger retry
C. B. Broadcast frames are delivered through the access point's wired interface
D. A. Broadcast frames are protected by mandatory RTS/CTS exchanges

54 An 802.11a-only access point transmits beacons normally, but an 802.11b-only client does not discover it. What is the primary reason?

802.11a Hard
A. A. 802.11a uses a 5 GHz OFDM PHY that the 2.4 GHz client cannot receive
B. D. 802.11a encrypts management frames using a modulation-specific mandatory key
C. C. 802.11b clients reject all access points whose maximum rate exceeds 11 Mbps
D. B. 802.11a suppresses beacon frames unless an 802.11a client probes first

55 Which mapping of legacy 802.11b data rates to physical-layer coding is correct?

802.11b Hard
A. A. 1 and 2 Mbps use Barker spreading; 5.5 and 11 Mbps use CCK
B. D. All four rates use OFDM with different convolutional coding rates
C. C. 1 and 5.5 Mbps use Barker spreading; 2 and 11 Mbps use OFDM
D. B. 1 and 2 Mbps use CCK; 5.5 and 11 Mbps use OFDM

56 An 802.11g network's throughput falls after a legacy 802.11b station associates, even though that station sends little application data. What is the best explanation?

802.11g Hard
A. D. The contention window is permanently doubled for all stations
B. B. Protection exchanges and legacy timing add airtime overhead
C. C. OFDM becomes prohibited for every associated 802.11g station
D. A. The access point must move all traffic from 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz

57 On an error-prone 802.11n link, which aggregation method permits successful subframes to remain accepted while only corrupted MPDUs are retransmitted using Block ACK information?

802.11n Hard
A. D. Spatial multiplexing, because each spatial stream has an independent ACK
B. B. A-MPDU, because each aggregated MPDU retains its own FCS
C. A. A-MSDU, because all MSDUs have independent PHY preambles
D. C. Channel bonding, because each 20 MHz half is acknowledged separately

58 A Bluetooth device bridges two classic piconets whose masters use different hopping sequences. How does the bridge normally participate?

Bluetooth Architecture Hard
A. C. It merges both masters' addresses into a single scatternet hop sequence
B. D. It forces both piconet masters to adopt the bridge's native clock
C. A. It time-shares participation and resynchronizes when switching piconets
D. B. It follows both hopping sequences simultaneously on one classic radio

59 In a classic Bluetooth piconet, which information primarily determines the channel-hopping sequence and phase followed by connected slave devices?

Bluetooth Architecture Hard
A. B. The slaves' averaged clocks and logical transport addresses
B. A. The master's device address and native clock
C. D. The service UUID and L2CAP channel identifier of the active application
D. C. The strongest slave's address and received signal strength

60 A classic Bluetooth application must discover a remote serial-port service and then exchange a serial-style byte stream. Which protocol sequence is appropriate?

Bluetooth Layers Hard
A. D. Use L2CAP to query every remote application process directly, then bypass RFCOMM and transmit the serial stream as unframed inquiry packets on the physical radio
B. C. Use HCI for discovery, then SCO as a reliable serial byte stream
C. B. Use RFCOMM for discovery, then SDP directly over the baseband
D. A. Use SDP for discovery, then RFCOMM over L2CAP for the stream